Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. placement paper

Company Profile
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. formed in October, 2000, is World's 7th largest Telecommunications Company providing comprehensive range of telecom services in India: Wireline, CDMA mobile, GSM Mobile, Internet, Broadband, Carrier service, MPLS-VPN, VSAT, VoIP services, IN Services etc. Within a span of five years it has become one of the largest public sector unit in India.

BSNL has installed Quality Telcom Network in the country and now focusing on improving it, expanding the network, introducing new telecom services with ICT applications in villages and wining customer's confidence. Today, it has about 47.3 million line basic telephone capacity, 4 million WLL capacity, 20.1 Million GSM Capacity, more than 37382 fixed Exchanges, 18000 BTS, 287 Satellite Stations, 480196 Rkm of OFC Cable, 63730 Rkm of Microwave Network connecting 602 Districts, 7330 cities/towns and 5.5 Lakhs villages.

BSNL is the only service provider, making focused efforts and planned initiatives to bridge the Rural-Urban Digital Divide ICT sector. In fact there is no telecom operator in the country to beat its reach with its wide network giving services in every nook & corner of country and operates across India except Delhi & . Whether it is inaccessible areas of Siachen glacier and North-eastern region of the country. BSNL serves its customers with its wide bouquet of telecom services.

BSNL is numero uno operator of India in all services in its license area. The company offers vide ranging & most transparent tariff schemes designed to suite every customer.
BSNL cellular service, CellOne, has more than 17.8 million cellular customers, garnering 24 percent of all mobile users as its subscribers. That means that almost every fourth mobile user in the country has a BSNL connection. In basic services, BSNL is miles ahead of its rivals, with 35.1 million Basic Phone subscribers i.e. 85 per cent share of the subscriber base and 92 percent share in revenue terms.

BSNL has more than 2.5 million WLL subscribers and 2.5 million Internet Customers who access Internet through various modes viz. Dial-up, Leased Line, DIAS, Account Less Internet(CLI). BSNL has been adjudged as the NUMBER ONE ISP in the country.

BSNL has set up a world class multi-gigabit, multi-protocol convergent IP infrastructure that provides convergent services like voice, data and video through the same Backbone and Broadband Access Network. At present there are 0.6 million DataOne broadband customers.

The turnover, nationwide coverage, reach, comprehensive range of telecom services and the desire to excel has made BSNL the No. 1 Telecom Company of India.

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. [BSNL] will recruit about 3591 [subject to variation depending on the availability of vacancies] Graduate Engineer Junior Telecom. Officers (JTOs) through a competitive examination to be held on 15.06.2008 on All India basis from amongst qualified graduate engineers

Selection for a Particular Circle & Service liability
The BSNL comprises a number of territorial Circles and functional Circles. The recruitment will be made centrally by BSNL and JTOs so recruited will be allotted territorial/functional Circles depending on vacancies, their choice and merit. A list of the existing territorial Circles, their respective headquarters etc., appears in Annexure ‘A’.

Mode of selection and nature of Question Paper
The mode of selection is through an All India Competitive Examination. The examination will be of three hours duration. The Question Paper will be fully objective type with multiple options as answers to each question. The standard of paper in Engineering subjects will be that of Engineering Examination of an Indian University. The objective type examination shall be of 3 hours duration with one question paper containing 3 sections of Engineering Stream Section-I, Engineering Stream Section-II and General Ability Test Section-III. The Engineering Stream Section-I and Section-II would include 50 questions each and General Ability test Section-III would include 20 questions. However, there would be no separate time fixed for attempting the separate sections. Detailed syllabus appears at Annexure ‘B’

BSNL Registered Office:
Bharat Sanchar Bhavan
Harish Chandra Mathur Lane
Janpath, New Delhi-110 001

For More info Visit Website : www.bsnl.co.in

Scheme and Syllabus for the Recruitment of Graduate Engineer Junior Telecom Officers [JTO] - 2007

For Direct Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers, an objective type Examination of 3 hours duration consisting of following sectional papers will be conducted:

Scheme

A. Engineering Stream Section - I
B. Engineering Stream Section - II
C. General Ability Test Section - III

1. The standard of paper in Engineering subjects will be that of Engineering Degree Examination of an Indian University.
2. In the general ability test, special attention will be paid to assess the candidate’s capacity for general awareness. The standard of paper in general ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Graduate.
3. The syllabus for engineering stream papers will be as given below.

SYLLABUS

SECTION - I

1. Materials and components:
Structure and properties of Electronic Engineering materials, Conductors, Semiconductors and Insulators, Magnetic, Ferroelectric, Piezoelectric, Ceramic, Optical and Superconducting materials. Passive components and characteristics, Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors; Ferrites, Quartz crystal, Ceramic resonators, Electromagnetic and Electromechanical components.

2. Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs:
Electrons and holes in semiconductors, Carrier Statistics, Mechanics of current flow in a semi-conductor, Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their characteristics; Bipolar Junction transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching devices like SCRs, CTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS types; Basics of Opto Electronics.

3. Network theory:
Network analysis techniques: Network theorem, transcient and steady state sinusoidal response, Transmission criteria: delay and rise time Elmore’s and other definition, effect of cascading. Elements of network synthesis.

4. Electromagnetic Theory:
Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, microstrip lines; Basics of waveguides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.

5. Electronic Measurements and instrumentation:
Basic concepts, standards and error analysis; Measurements of basic electrical quantities and parameters; Electronic measuring instruments and their principles of working: analog and digital, comparison, characteristics, applications. Transducers; Electronic measurements of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, humidity etc. Basics of telemetry for industrial use.

6. Power Electronics:
Power Semiconductor devices, Thyristor, Power transistor, MOSFETs, Characteristics and operation. AC to DC converters; 1-Phase and 3-phase DC to DC Converters.
AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors, switched capacitor networks.
Inverters: Single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.


SECTION-II

1. Analog Electronic Circuits:
Transistor biasing and stabilization, Small Signal analysis. Power amplifiers. Frequency response, Wide band techniques, Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers. Oscillators. Rectifiers and power supplies. Operational Amplifier, other linear integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and waveform generators.

2. Digital Electronic Circuits:
Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean functions, Karnaugh Map and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics; IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS and CMOS gates and their comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, full adder; Digital Comparator; Multiplexer Demultiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops, R-S, J-K, D and T flip-flops; Different types of counters and registers; waveform generators. A/D and D/A converters. Semiconductor memories.

3. Control Systems:
Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on stability and sensitivity, Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis. Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M and Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control Systems, Compensators; Industrial controllers.

4. Communication systems:
Basic information theory: Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems; Sampling and data reconstruction. Quantization & Coding; Time division and frequency division multiplexing; Equalization; Optical Communication: in free space & fibre optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency; Satellite Communication.

5. Microwave Engineering:
Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers, Waveguides and other Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits, Microwave antennas, Microwave Measurements, MASERS LASERS; Microwave Propogation. Microwave Communication Systems-terrestrial and satellite based.

6. Computer Engineering:
Number Systems; Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level programming language PASCAL/C; use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer architecture processor design; Control unit design; Memory organization. I/O System Organization. Personal computers and their typical uses.

7. Microproccers:
Microprocessor architecture - Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Microprocessors in Telecommunications and power system.


SECTION-III

General ability test:
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Telecommunications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.

Paper
. When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms
a.) Resistance b.) Reactance c.) Impedance d.) None
2. Oscillator crystal are made of
a.) Silicon b.) Germanium c.) Quartz d.) None
3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-
a. )Air b. )Ferrite c.) Powdered ion d.) Steel
4. If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area 'A' and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become
a.) b.) C c.) 2C d.) 4C
5. A superconductor is a
a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
6. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be
a) 8.05 pF b) 10.05pF c.) 16.01pF d.) 20.01pF
7. Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
a.) Inductance b.) Capacitance c.) Resistance d.) None
8. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a
a.) Resistance in the line
b.) Capacitor in series with contacts
c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts
d.) None
9. RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in
a.) Class 'A' b.) Class 'b' c.) Class 'C' d.) None
10. The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be
a.) High positive b.) High negative c.) Low positive d.) Zero
11. The input gate current of a FET is
a.) a few microamperes b.) negligibly small c.) a few milliamperes
d.) a few amperes
12. In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is
a.) 25 mA b.) 40 mA c.) 25/16 mA d.) 10 mA
13. A step recovery diode
a.) has on extremely short recovery time
b.) conducts equally well in both directions
c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator
d.) is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals
14. In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with VCC 10V, the value of VCE (Q) should be approximately
a.) 0.1V b.) 5V c.) 10V d) V
15. In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is
a.) source b.) drain c.) gate d.) none
16. The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is
a.) Triac b.) UJT c.) Diac d.) SCR
17. A typical optical fibre has
a.) High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding
b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
c.) Both a and b d.) None
18. In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to
a.) 9 b.) 11 c.) 10 d.) 21
19. When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be
a.) 3 – j1 b.) 3 + j9 c.) 7.5 + j 2.5 d.) 7.5 – j 2.5
20. In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load
a.) 5 b.) 6.5 c.) 8 d.) 9
21. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z0 is the characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line
a.) Z0 cot h Öl b.) Z0 cot Öl c.) Z0 tan h.Ö l d.) Z0 tan Öl
22. The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be
a.) l b.) l/4 c.) l/2 d.) l/8
23. A relatively permanent information is stored in
a.) ROM b.) RAM c.) PROM d.) Volatile memory
24. The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to
b.) RC c.) 2RC d.) 4RC
25. If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch 's' and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be
a.) cos50tA b.) 2A c.) 2cos100tA d.) 2sin50tA
26. When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be respectively
a) 9W, 6W and 6W b.) 6W, 6W and 9W c.) 9W, 6W and 9W d.) 6W, 9W and 6W
27. When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be
d.) indeterminate
28. Joule/coulomb is the unit of
a.) Electric field potential b.) Potential c.) Charge d.) None
29. The electric field line and equipotential lines-
a.) Are parallel to each other
b.)Are one and same
c.) Cut each other orthogonally
d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle
30. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z0 is the characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line
31. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed
a.) In the +x direction b.) In the –x direction
c. ) In the +y direction d.) In the –y direction
32. The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are
a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation
b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation
c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
d.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
33. The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be
a.) TM01 b.)TE10 c.) TM112 d.)TE11
34. When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as
35. When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be
a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value b.)Remain the same
c. )Increase d.)Decrease to zero
36. When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.)An inductance at the load
c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.)none of the above
37. As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –
a.) less accurate b.) more accurate c.) equally accurate d.) none.
38. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used
a.) VTVM b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter
39. Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?
a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.
b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5.
c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero
d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero
40. When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be
a.) 11.1 b.) 44.2 c.) 52.3 d.) 66.3
41. The Q of a radio coil
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
42. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is
a.) 0.5 b.) 1.5 c.) 2.5 d.) 1.75
43. The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is
a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)
44. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of
a.) -2000C to 5000C b.) 00C to 5000C c.) 5000C to 12000C d.) 12000C to 25000C
45. In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of
a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs) b.) Silicon (Si) c.) Copper (Cu) d.) Germanium (Ge)
46. When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is
a.) 1 b.) 2 c.) 3 d.) 4
47. The circuit symbol for a GTO is
48. In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters
a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction
c.) step up device
d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device
49. In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.
S is closed at t = 0 the
maximum value of current and the
time at which it reaches this value are respectively.
a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS
b.) 50 A, 30 mS
c.) 100 A, 62.828 mS
d.) 400 A, 31.414 mS
50. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be
a.) 200 A b.) 170.7 A c.) 141.4 A d.) 70.7 A
51. The transfer function of an amplifier is given by
The high 3-db frequency of the amplifier will approximately
a.) 5850 KHZ b.)585 KHZ c.) 5850 HZ d.)585HZ
52. In comparison to full wave rectifier with two diodes the four divide bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of
a). Higher current carrying
b.) Lower ripple factor
c.) Higher efficiency
d.) Lower peak increase voltage require
53. Power output increase in a class-c amplifier-
a.) If the conduction angle decrease
b). If the conduction angle increase
c.) Are not governed by the conduction angle
d.) None of the above
54. A transistor with hie = 1.5 k and hfe = 75 is used in an emitter follower circuit where R1 and R2 are used for normal biasing . Approximate value of it’s current amplification is
a.)75 b.)76 c.)75/76 d.)-75
55. Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off
56. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is
a.) Direct coupling b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling d.)Transformer coupling
57. In the circuit shown in the given figure Rf provides
a.) Current series feedback
b.) Current shunt feedback
c.) Voltage series feedback
d.) Voltage shunt feedback
58. Mark the correct relation for the junction transistor
59. Data in the serial form can be converted into parallel form by using –
a.) PISO shift register
b.) SOIP shift register
c.) SIPO shift register
d.) POIS shift register
60. PROMs are used to store
a.) bulk information
b.) information to be accessed rarely
c.) sequence information
d.) relatively permanent information
61. The horizontal axis in a 3 bit unipolar D/A converter represents
a.) Output bit combination
b.) analog output voltage
c.) input bit combination
d.) none of the above
62. 'Not allowed' condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is
a.) s = 0, R = 0 b.) s = 1, R = 1 c.) s = 0, R = 1 d.) s = 1, R = 0
63. Name the fastest logic family
a) TTL b.) RTL c.) DCTL d.) ECL
64. Equation corresponding to De Morgan's theorem in Boolean Algebra is
a.) (A+B) (A+B) = AA + AB + BA + BB
c.) A + AB = A
d.) None of the above
65. In the given fig find radix of the system
a.) 2 b.) 4 c.) 6 d.) 8
66. Modems are used for data transmission telephone lines to
a.) increase the transmission capacity
b) improve noice performance
c.) incorporate error control coding
d.) eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal
67. The figure of a control system is shown. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is
a.) b.) 3 c.) 4 d.) 5
68. Identify the example of open-loop system-
a.) A windscreen wiper b.) Aqualung
c.) Respiratory system of an animal
d.) A system for controlling Anti-rocket missiles.
69. Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system
1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)
Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include
a.) 1&3 b.) 1&4 c.) 2&4 d.) 1&4
70. A system is described by
To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method the following V functions are considered.
Mark the most suitable V-function in this case-
a.) Only V1 b.) Only V2 c.) Both V1 and V2 d.) Neither V1 nor v2
71. Identity the polar plot of a typical type zero system with open loop transfer function
72. The scattering matrix of a magic –tee shown in the given figure is-
73. Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system
1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4
74. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)
The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a.) 150 samples per second b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second d.) 350 samples per second
75. In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
a.) 34 and 106 b.) 52. And 88 c.) 106 and 142 d.) 34 and 142
76. Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is
a.) Pulse radar b.) Tracking radar c.) MTI radar d.) Mono pulse radar
77. The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because
a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing
78. Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves
a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
79. In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through
a.) reflection from the ionosphere b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.
80. Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b). increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
81. In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to
a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.
82. Circuit in the given figure represents.
a.) an astable multivibrator b.) A monostable multivibrator
c.) Voltage controlled oscillator d.) Ramp generator
83. . . D = r is-
a.) Maxwell's 1st equation b.) Maxwell's II equation
c.) Maxwell's III equation d.) Maxwell’s IV equation
84. In a rectangular wave-guide which TM mode exists
a.) TM00 b.) TM01 c.) Tm10 d.) TM11
85. In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.
a). port 4 b). port 3 c.) port 2. d.) port 3 & 4.
86. For high power i.e. 10 w to 50 kw measurement
a.) Barometer are used b.) Thermisters are used
c.) Calorimetric technique d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used
87. The difference between TWT & klystron is
a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time
c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact
d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact
88. Which one is most suitable for transmission through wave guide
a.) Hown antennas b.) Bioconical antennas c.) helical antenna d.) Discone
89. The skip distance of microwave is given by
90. How many general purpose registers 8085mp
a.) 4 b.) 6 c.) 8 d.) 10
91. 8085 mP has no. of addressing modes
a.) 2 b.) 3 c.) 4 d.) 5
92. What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction
a.) z = 0, cy = 0 b.) z = 0, cy = 1 c.) z = 1, cy = 0 d.) z = 1, cy = 1
93. Microprocessor accept interrupt only if.
a.) interrupt flip flop disabled.
b.) when INTA signal is low.
c. ) interrupt flip flop enabled.
d.) none of above.
94. Microprogramming is a technique
a.) for programming the microprocessor
b.) for writing small programs efficiently
c.) for programming the control steps of computer
d.) for programming o/p / i/p
95. High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help of
a.) interpreter b.) compiler c.) operating d.) system
96. (10110011)2 = (?)8
a.) 253 b.) 263 c.) 273 d.) 283
97. A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into
a.) NAND b.) NOR c.) AND d.) NOPE.
98. The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be
a.) AND b.) OR c.) NAND d.) X-OR
99. A symbol of JK flip flop is
100. A demultiplener
a.) has multiple i/p and single o/p
b.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
d.) has single i/p and single o/p
101. Which of the following best describes the authour`s attitude toward fairy tales ?
a.) fascination b.) open approval. c.) Indulgent tolerance. d.) Scornful.
102. What type of sentence is this ?
Hurray! We won the match
a.) Exclamatory b.) assertive c.) Negative d.) Affirmative
103. Before which of the following word will you put 'a'
a.) hour b.) M. A. c.) Umbrella d.) Man
104. The noun form of 'fresh' is
a.) freshly b.) freshen c.) fresheners d.) fresh itself
105. The word 'clang' is an example of
a.) Simile b.) inversion c.) onomatopoeia d.) irony
106. The Forbes magazine acclaimed Azim Premji as richest India's is the chairman of
a.) Pentafour software b) Infosys c.) IBM d.) Wipro
107. Bharat Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to
a.) Lata Mangeshkar and Zakeer Hussain
b.) Zakeer Hussain and Bismillah Khan
c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar
d.) Lata Mangeshkar and Ustad Amzad Ali Khan
108. Mr. George W-Bush takes over as ------ President of the united states of America succeeding Mr. Bill Clinton-
a.) 42nd b.) 43rd c.) 40th d.) 45th
109. New Chief Minister of Pondicherry is
a.) T. Venkat Naidu b.) K. Hari Harh c.) N. Rengaswany d.) M. Mudliar
110. No court has the jurisdiction to interfere with the election process once set in motion by the Election commission. This is enshrined in Article
a.) 311 b.) 329 c.) 356 d.) 365
111. Ostrich is a
a.) Running bird b.) Flying bird c) Swimming bird d.) Migratory bird
112. The main atmospheric gas responsible for green house is
a.) Oxygen b.) Nitrogen c.) Ozone d.) Carbon-dioxide
113. Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop
a.) Rice b.) groundnut c.) Sugarcane d.) gram
114. The function of World Bank is to
a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economy
b.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates
c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments
d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade
115. Speed of sound is maximum in
a.) Water b.) Air c.) Steel d.) Vacuum
116. “Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these-
a.) Subhash Chandra Bose b.) Jawaharlal Nehru
c.) Lajpat Rai d.) Bhagat Singh
117. Durand cup is associated with
a.) Hockey b.) Tennis c.) Football d.) Badminton
118. Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.
a.) 1908 b.) 1910 c.) 1913 d.) 1914
119. India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on
a.) May 18, 1975 b.) May 20, 1974 c) May 17, 1974 d.) May 17, 1974
120. An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-
a.) Asian development Bank b.) World Bank c.) Swiss Bank d.) Reserve Bank of India

BSNL PAPER ON 20TH JUNE,2008

1. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is
a) Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
b) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the pointing vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
c) The pointing vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
d) The pointing vector points everywhere radially into the volume between the plates.
2. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
a) Polarization
b) Conductivity
c) Structural homogeneties
d) Ionization
3. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon
a) Boron b) Indium c) Germanium d) Antimony
4. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess
a) High thermal conductivity and high melting point
b) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point
c) High thermal conductivity and low melting point
d) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point
5. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the
a) infrared region b) ultraviolet region c) visible region d) x-ray region
6. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively
a) high and high b) low and high c) high and low d) low and low
7. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress
a) odd harmonics b) even harmonics c) fundamental component d) dc component
8. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
a) mutual inductance between two coils only
b) self inductances of the two coils only
c) mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils
d) none
9. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of
a) paper b) rubber c) ceramic d) Mylar
10. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is
a) always positive
b) always negative
c) sometime positive, sometime negative
d) numerically less than its kinetic energy
11. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a) channel b) gate c) P-N junctions d) substrate
12. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge over the normal strain gauge is that
a) it is more sensitive
b) it is more linear
c) it is less temperature dependent
d) it's cost is low
13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by
a) thermally generated electrons and holes
b) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
c) migration of minority carriers across the junction
d) flow of drift current
14. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter
a) recombine with holes in the base
b) recombine in the emitter itself
c) pass through the base to the collector
d) are stopped by the junction barrier
15. The value of r when a transistor is biased to cut off is –
a) 0.5 b) 0 c) 1.0 d) 0.8
16. A UJT can
a) be triggered by any one of it's three terminals
b) not be triggered
c) be triggered by two of its three terminal only
d) be triggered by all of its terminals only
17. An SCR can only be turned off via it's
a) cathode b) anode c) gates d) none
18. gold is often diffused into silicon DN junction devices to
a) increase the recombination rate
b) reduce the recombination rate
c) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor
d) make silicon semimetal
19. With n nodes and b branches a network will have
a) (b + n) links b) b – n + 1 links c) b – n – 1 links d) b + n + 1 links
20. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be
a) 7 b) 9 c) 10 d) 45
21. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give
a) an output power which is one – quarter of the input power
b) an output power which is one – half of the input power
c) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage
d) an output power which is 0.707 of the input power
22. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer –
a) the terminals are kept shorted
b) critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals
c) the terminals are kept open circuited
d) it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals
23. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series and R1 and shunt arm R2 ?
1. R1 = 147W 2. R1 = 153W
3. R2 = 1.5W 4. R2 = 3750W
a) 1 and 3 b) 1 and 4 c) 2 and 3 d) 2 and 4
24. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294mH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is
a) 49w b) 60w c) 70w d) 140w
25. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
26. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network
1. Z11 = Z22 2. h12 = h21
3. Y12 = -Y21 4. BC – AD = -1
then the network is reciprocal if and only if
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 3 and 4 are correct
d) 4 alone is correct
27. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are
a) will become half
b) will remain high
c) will become double
d) cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known
28. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and uniform charge density d in vacuum is-
Ans. 5.4x109xQ2/r where Q=4/3(pie)r3d
29. Maxwell’s divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by
Ans. y
30. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 l at frequency f and if it’s radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then it’s radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be
a) R/2 ohms b) R ohms c) 2R ohms d) 4R ohms
31. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include
a) TE111 and TM111
b) TE011 and TM011
c) TE022 and TM111
d) TE111 and TM011
32. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then it’s efficiency will be nearly
a) 0.19 b) 0.81 c) 0.97 d) 1.19
33. If an isolated conducting sphere in air has radius = 1/ 4pqe0 it capacitance will be
a) Zero b) IF c) 4pF d) OF
34. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in it’s characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHz signal then if ‘d’ is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then
a) d = 1.5 cm
b) d is less then 1.5 cm
c) d is greater than 1.5 cm
d) d = 3cm
35. When a dipole antenna of l/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5 W then the efficiency of the antenna is
a) 0.89159 % b) 8.9159 % c) 89.159 % d) 891.59 %
36. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally
a) 5 KHz b) 15 KHz c) 75 KHz d) 200 KHz
37. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is
a) sinusoidal b) square c) rectangular d) triangular
38. Strain gauge is
a) not a transducer
b) an active transducer
c) not an electronic instrument
d) none
39. A high Q coil has
a) large band width b) high losses c) low losses d) flat response
40. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is
a) 1.810% b) 0.181% c) 18.10% d) 0.0018%
41. The 'h' parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for
a) High frequency, large signal operation
b) High frequency, small signal operation
c) Low frequency, small signal operation
d) Low frequency, large signal operation
42. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on –
a) Values of input in the past and in the future
b) Values of input at that time and in the past
c) Values of input at that time and in the future
d) None
43. A iron cored choke is a
a) Linear and active device
b) Non linear and passive device
c) Active device only
d) Linear device only
44. Pointing vector wattmeter uses
a) Seebeck effect b) Ferranti effect c) Induction effect d) Hall effect
45. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense ?
a) Thermocouple b) Piezoelectric pick – up
c) Photo voltaic cell d) LCD
46. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is
a) Converter system b) Inverter c) Chopper d) Thyristor
47. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode
a) SCR b) PCR c) VCR d) DCR
48. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a
a) constant voltage source
b) constant current source
c) constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source
d) resistance
49. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of
a) electrons only b) electrons or holes c) electrons and holes d) holes only
50. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to secondary are respectively
a) ferrite : 20 : 1
b) laminated iron : 1 : 1
c) ferrite : 1 : 1
d) powdered iron : 1 : 1
51. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a
a) 1 phase full converter
b) 3 phase half wave converter
c) 3 phase semi converter
d) 3 phase full converter
52. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is
a) square wave b) triangular wave c) step function d) pulsed wave
53. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with center tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is
a) 100V b) 141.4V c) 200V d) 282.8V
54. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying
a) T keeping Ton constant
b) Ton keeping T constant
c) Toff keeping T constant
d) None of the above
55. From the hot metal surface electrons escape because
a) of change of state from metal to gas due to heat.
b) of change of stats from gas to metal.
c) the energy supplied is greater than the work function
d) the energy is greater than Fermi level.
56. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is –
a) amplifier b) triode c) diode d) transistor
57. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is
a) Either cathode
b) Either anode
c) The central tap on the high voltage secondary
d) Either plate
58. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will
a) Amplify the noise as much as the signal
b) Reduce the noise
c) Increase the noise
d) Not effect the noise
59. Match the given feedback circuit with it’s proper nomenclatures

a) Current series feedback
b) Current shunt feedback
c) Voltage series feedback
d) Voltage shunt feedback

60. Class A amplifier is used when
a) No phase inversion is required
b) Highest voltage gain is required
c) dc voltages are to be amplified
d) Minimum distortion is desired

61. Identify the correct match for the given transistor

a) Enhancement type P channel MOSFET
b) Depletion type N channel MOSFET
c) Enhancement type N channel MOSFET
d) Depletion type P channel MOSFET
62. In case a signal band limited to fm is sampled at a rate less than 2fm, the constructed signal will be
a) Distortionless
b) Small in amplitude
c) Having higher frequencies suppressed
d) Distorted
63. Quad 2 input AND gates IC No is
a) 7411 b) 7404 c) 7400 d) 7408
64. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as
a) left shift register b) right shift register c) shift registers d) none of the above
65. The expression ABC can be simplified to
Ans. A + B + C
66. An ideal power supply consist of
a) Very small output resistance
b) Zero internal resistance
c) Very large input resistance
d) Very large output resistance
67. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by
68. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both
a) count pulses
b) store binary operation
c) shift registers
d) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip
69. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as
a) 1111101 b) 0001 0010 0101 c) 7D d) None of the above
70. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits required is
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 200
71. On differentiation unit impulse function results in
a) Unit parabolic function.
b) Unit triplet.
c) Unit doublet.
d) Unit ramp function.
72. Read the following;
i. Routh Hermitz`s criterion is in time domain.
ii. Root locus plot is in time domain.
iii. Bode plot is in frequency domain.
iv. Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain.
a) 2, 3, and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 3 and 4 are correct
d) All four are correct.
73. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function.
a) 150 b) 450 c) 300 d) 600
74. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is
a) Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain.
b) Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action.
c) Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback.
d) Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action.
75. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function
a) –40dB/dec to –20dB/dec
b) 40dB/dec to 20dB/dec
c) –20dB/dec to –40dB/dec
d) 40dB/dec to –20dB/dec
76. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by
Number of asymptotes of its root loci is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
77. In a closed – loop transfer function
the imaginary axis intercepts of the root loci will be
78. Considering the following statement :
In a magic tee
1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other
2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm
3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm
4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other.
Of these statements
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 4 are correct
d) 2 and 3 are correct
79. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called
a) ANIK
b) EARLY BIRD (Intel sat -1)
c) WESTAR
d) MOLNIYA
80. --- watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite
a) 100 b) 500 c) 2000 d) 1000
81. The ripple factor in an LC filter
a) Increases with the load current
b) Increases with the load resistance
c) Remains constant with the load current
d) Has the lowest value
82. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their
a) Language digits b) Access digits c) Area codes d) Central office codes
83. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because
a) it is move noise immune than other modulation systems
b) compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power
c) its use avoids receiver complexity
d) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity
84. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be
a) linear amplifier
b) harmonic generators
c) class C power amplifiers
d) class B untuned amplifiers
85. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on
a) maximum power of the transmitter
b) pulse repetition frequency
c) width of the transmitted pulse
d) sensitivity of the radar receiver
86. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to
a) equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace.
b) help vertical synchronization
c) help horizontal synchronization.
d) simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse
87. The frequency range 30MHz – 300MHz is
a) medium frequency
b) very high frequency
c) super high frequency
d) Infrared frequency
88. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide
a) TE b) TM c) TEM d) HE
89. Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at
a) upto 18kms from earth
b) from 18 to 70 km
c) 70 to 500 km
d) above 500 km
90. A two cavity klystron tube is a
a) velocity modulated tube
b) frequency modulated tube
c) Amplitude modulated tube
d) simple triode
91. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get
a) doubled b) quadrupted c) unchanged d) halved
92. Which one is a cross field tube
a) Klystron b) Reflex Klystron c) Magnetron d) TWT
93. The degree of coupling depends on
a). size of hole
b). location of holes
c). size and location of holes
d). not depend on size or location of hole
94. The thermal noise depends on
a) direct current through device
b) resistive component of resistance
c) reactive component of impedance
d) load to connected
95. The charge on a hole is
Ans. 1.6x10-19
96. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier
a) is tuned above the stations incoming frequency
b) amplifies the output of local oscillator
c) is fixed tuned to one particular frequency
d) can be tuned to various isolate frequencies
97. A duplexer is used to
1) couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference
2) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator
3) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver
4) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference
98. Intel's 8085 microprocessor chip contains
a) seven 8 bit registers
b) 8 seven bits registers
c) seven 7
d) eight 8
99. Boolean algebra is based on
a) numbers b) logic c) truth d) symbols
100. When A = 0, B = 0, C = 1 then in 2 input logic gate we get - - gate
a) XOR b) AND c) NAND d) NOR
101. With the beginnings of space travel, we entered a new - -
a) Era of great history b) List c) Book d) Year
102. An - - though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad.
a) Funny poem b) Newspaper article c) Orthodox talk d) Elegy
103. If stare is glance so gulp is
a) Sip b) Tell c) Salk d) Admire
104. He hardly works means
a) The work is hard
b) He is hard
c) The work is easy
d) He works very little
105. Give the opposite word for pulchritude
a) antipathy b) unsightliness c) inexperience d) languor
106. Nanometre is - - - - part of a metre.
a) Millionth b) Ten millionth c) Billionth d) Ten billionth
107. Malaria affects
a) Liver b) Spleen c) Intestine d) Lungs
108. Sindhu Rakshak is a/an
a) Aircraft carrier
b) Submarine
c) Multiple-purpose fighter
d) Anti-aircraft gun
109. With which subject is "Dada Saheb Phalke Award" associated?
a) Best film director
b) Best musician
c) Best documentary
d) Best work relating to promotion of Indian film Industry
110. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus?
a) Aryabhatta b) Newton c) Einstein d) Archimedes
111. In which state is Kanha Park situated?
a) M.P. b) U.P. c) Assam d) W. Bengal
112. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day?
a) 24th October b) 4th July c) 8th August d) 10th December
113. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of
a) Gupta architecture
b) Rashtrakuta architecture
c) Chalukya architecture
d) Chola architecture
114. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by
a) Joint sitting of the two Houses
b) President of India
c) Prime Minister of India
d) By a special committee for the purpose
115. Which of the following is not the work of Kalidasa?
a) Meghdoot
b) Raghuvansha
c) Sariputra Prakarma
d) Ritushamhara
116.Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of
a) Akbar the Great
b) Mahmud Ghaznvi
c) Shah Jahan
d) Alauddin Khilji
117. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' have been taken from
a) Vedas b) Bhagwad Gita c) Mundaka Upanishada d) Mahabharata
e) None of these
118. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?
a) USA b) USSR c) China d) Pakistan
119. "Kathakali" dance is connected with
a) Kerala b) Rajasthan c) Uttar Pradesh d) Tamil Nadu
120. The term "Ashes" is associated with
a) Hockey b) Cricket c) Soccer d) none of these

BSNL PAPER ON 20TH JULY,2008

1) who is author of “my people my country ?
Ans - L. K. Adwani
2) Who is first women grand master in India ?
Ans - S. Vijay Laxmi. (it was not koneru humpy she is youngest GM not First GM)
3) Who is iron Man ?
Ans - Sardar Vallabhai Patel.
4) where was Round Table conference was held ?
Ans - London
5) The branch in which study regarding immunity was done ?
Ans - Immunology.
6) What is HiINIAN ?
Ans -Regarding Buddhas (Some thing like that )
7) There is a Map given shown “KERALA & MEGHALAYA” in that which crop is more asked ?
Ans - I think answer may be Coffee. There is a confusion with TEA.
FPRIVATE "TYPE= PICT; ALT=
8)" Which state not touch the boundary of “Myanmar ”
Ans - Mizoram.
9) Oldest I I T at ?
Ans - Kharagpur.
10) There is a question of ENGLISH sent. .I agree “with” the proposal given by you
Ans is —- With ( May be )
11) Vitamin “C” found in ?
Ans - Orange & Lemon.
12) Radio Wave was invested by whom ?
Ans - See friend actual answer was “Markoni” but this was not option so correct option is ” Sir . Jagadish Chandra Bose .( Indian)
13) When is world telcom day ?
Ans - 17th May. recently
14) shimala agreement was between ?
Ans-India & Pakistan .
15) which gas is responsible for “Green house Effect”?
Ans- CO2 ( Carbon di oxide)
16)Who invested TV ?
Ans - Beard.
17) There is a 04 English sentence given and we need to choose correct one reg freance & french.
Ans — As per my knowledge is was ” French people live in France”
18) A bunch of island were known ?
Ans - I don't know please tell me .
19) The anytome of ………( I forgot the word )
Ans - Please tell me .

BSNL GE JTO-Recruitment Examination

1. Reactive current through the inductive load produces-

   a) Magnetic field

   b) Electric field

   c) Super magnetic field

   d) None

2. When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80⁰ K then the resistance of -

   a) each of them increases

   b) each of them decreases

   c) copper increases and germanium decreases

   d) copper decreases and germanium increases

3. A capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5 cm² each separated by an air gap of 2mm. Displacement sensitivity in pF /cm due to gap change would be -

   a) 11.1

   b) 44.2

   c) 52.3

   d) 66.3

4. The critical angle in degrees, for an electromagnetic wave passing from Quartz (m = m_0, Î=4Î_o) into air is-

   a) 15

   b)30

   c)45

   d)90

5. When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –

   a) s = 0; s = -6

   b) s = -1; s = -3

   c) s = 0; s = -1

   d) s = -3; s = -4

6. A capacitor used for power factor correction in single- phase circuit decreases –

   a) the power factor

   b) the line current

   c) Both the line current and the power factor

   d) the line current and increases power factor

7. The unit of inductance is –

   a) ohm

   b) inductive reactance

   c) inducta

   d) Henry

8. Which type of by-pass capacitor works best at high frequencies –

   a) electrolytic

   b) mica

   c) ceramic

   d) plexiglass

9. The usual value of the surge impedance of a telephone line is –

   a) 600 W

   b) 500 W

   c) 75 W

   d) none

10. Telemetering is a method of –

    a) counting pulses, sent over long distances

    b) transmitting pictures from one place to another

    c) transmitting information concerning a process over a distance

    d) None

11. In an unbiased P-N junction thickness of depletion layer is of the order of –

    a) 0.005 mm

    b) 0.5 mm

    c) 5 mm

    d) 10^-10 m

12. One of the semiconductor device, which behaves like two SCRs is–

    a) UJT

    b) triac

    c) JFET

    d) MOSFET

13. The following, which is not an advantage of semiconductor strain gauges as compared to conventional strain gauges, is –

    a) excellent hysterists characteristics

    b) least sensitive to temperature changes

    c) high fatigue life

    d) smaller size

14. The fundamental ripple frequency of a half wave 3F rectifier with a 3F supply of frequency 50 Hz is –

    a) 150 Hz

    b) 50 Hz

    c) 100 Hz

    d) 250 Hz.

15. For an FR biased PNP transistor –

    a) base is negative with respect to emitter

    b) collector is positive with respect to emitter

    c) collector is a little more positive than base

    d) base is a little less positive with respect to emitter than collector

16. With normal operation of a JFET one can get I_Dss –

    a) the maximum drain current

    b) the minimum drain current

    c) normal drain current

    d) none

17. An SCR is a semiconductor device made up of –

    a) Four N type layers

    b) Two P types and three N type layers

    c) Two P type and two N type layers

    d) Three P type and one N type layers

18. For a UJT, if R₁ = resistance from emitter to base 1, R₂ = resistance from emitter to the base 2 and R_BB = R₁ + R₂ then the intrinsic stand off ratio (h) is –

    a)

    b)

    c)

    d)

19. As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –

    a) becomes zero

    b) abruptly decreases

    c) abruptly increases

    d) remains constant

20. 20 When the energy gap of a semiconductor is 1.1eV then it would be –

    a) opaque to the visible light

    b) transparent to the visible light

    c) transparent to the infrared radiation

    d) opaque to the infrared radiation

21. The equivalent capacitance across ab will be –

    

    

    

    

    d.0

22. In the following fig. the power dissipated is maximum when the value of R_x is –

    

    a) 33.4 K

    b) 17.6 K

    c) 10 K

    d) 5 K

23. The transfer function of a low pass RC network is –

    

    

    

    
    

24. The total capacitance across points 'a' and 'b' in the given figure is –

    

    a) 1.66 mF

    b) 2.66 mF

    c) 3.5 mF

    d) 4.5 mF

25. The load resistance needed to extract maximum power from the following circuit is –

    

    a) 2W

    b) 9W

    c) 6W

    d) 18W

26. Which one of the following conditions for z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –

    a) z₁₁ = z₂₂

    b) z₁₂z₂₁ = z₁₁z₂₂

    c) z₁₁z₁₂ = z₂₂z₂₁

    d) z₁₂ = z₂₁

27. In the network shown, the switch is opened at t = 0. Prior to that, the network was in the steady state, Vs(t) at t = 0 is –

    

    a) 0

    b) 5V

    c) 10V

    d) 15V

28. Which of the following statements are correct –

    1. Tellegen's theorem is applicable to any lumped network

    2. The reciprocity theorem is applicable to linear bilateral networks.

    3. Thevenin's theorem is applicable to two terminal linear active networks.

    4. Norton's theorem is applicable to two terminal linear active networks.

    a) 1, 2 and 3

    b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    c) 1, 2 and 4

    d) 3 and 4

29. Which one of the following transfer functions represents the critically damped system ?

    

    

    

    

30. When the respective coil impedance of the circuit shown in the fig. is are Z₁ = (5 + j8)W and Z₂=(3+j8) then the input impedance of the circuit will be –

    

    a) (8 + 16j)W

    b) (2 + j0)W

    c) (15 + 64j)W

    d) (8 + 0j)W

31. One of the following statement which is not correct -

    a) In case of an antenna, the radiation resistance and loss resistance are not two different quantities.

    b) The loss resistance includes loss by eddy currents, improper earth connections, insulation leakages etc) but not I²R losses

    c) Radiation resistance varies directly as square root of the frequency

    d) None of the above

32. Ultraviolet radiation emitted when electron jumps from an outer stationary orbit to -.

    a) first stationary orbit

    b) second stationary orbit

    c) third stationary orbit

    d) fourth stationary orbit

33. When the signal is propogated in a waveguide which has a full wave of electric intensity change between the two farther walls and no component of the electric field in the direction of propogation then the mode is –

    a) TE₁₁

    b) TE₁₀

    c) TM₂₂

    d) TE₂₀

34. Consider the following statements pertaining to parabolic antenna -

    1.It is commonly used above 1GHz

    2. It get’s circularly polarized

    3. It’s radiation pattern is highly directional

    4. It’s radiation pattern is cardiod

    of these statements-

    a) 1,2 and 4 are correct

    b) 1 and 3 are correct

    c) 1,2 and 3 are correct

    d) 2 and 4 are correct

35. When a vertical dipole antenna is used in conjunction with a loop antenna for direction finding, then the field pattern obtained will be-

    

    

    

    

36. When one end of a loss less transmission line of length 3/8 l and characteristic impedance R₀ is short circuited and the other end is terminated in Ro then the impedance at l/8 away from the end terminated in R₀ is-

    a) Zero

    b) R₀

    c) R₀/2

    d) Infinite

37. For transmission of wave from a dielectric permittivity Î₁ into dielectric medium of lower permittivity Î₂ (Î₁ > Î₂) the critical angle of incidence Qc ( relative to the interface ) is given by -

    

    

    

    

38. A transmission line has primary constants R, L, G and C and secondary constants Z₀ and g (= a + jb) if the line is loss less then .

    

    

    

    

39. The intrinsic impedance of a free space is-

    

    

    

    

40. One of the following which is a low gain but omni directional antenna is-

    a) discone

    b) log-periodic

    c) loop

    d) helical

41. Electronic voltmeters have –

    a) high input impedance

    b) low input impedance

    c) zero input impedance

    d) none

42. Which of the following statement about impulse voltage is true ?

    a) An impulse voltage is an unidirectional voltage.

    b) In chopped impulse voltage, flashover does not occur.

    c) Time taken to rise is exactly equal to the time taken to fall.

    d) RMS value of impulse voltage is always less than 50% of average value.

43. The precision of an instrument indicates its ability to reproduce a certain reading with a given –

    a) drift

    b) resolution

    c) shift.

    d) consistency

44. In heterodyne digital conductor, the input signal is heterodyned to a –

    a) higher frequency

    b) lower frequency

    c) both a and b)

    d) none

45. In a digital measuring device, if the input electrical signal is in the frequency range dc to f_max Hz, then it must be sampled at a rate of –

    a) f_max times/sec

    b) f_max times/ses

    c) every 2f_max/sec

    d) 2 f_max times/sec .

46. Moving Iron intruments measures the rms value of –

    a) a direct quantity

    b) an alternating quantity

    c) a virtual quantity.

    d) none.

47. One of the following intruments which is used almost exclusively to measure radio frequency current is-

    a) Moving coil meter

    b) Rectifier-type moving coil meter

    c) Iron-vane meter

    d) Thermocouple meter.

48. A good ohmic contact on a p- type semiconductor chip is formed by introducing –

    a) gold as an impurity below the contact

    b) a high concentration of donors below the contract

    c) a high concentration of acceptors below the contact

    d) a thin insulator layer between the metal and semiconductor.

49. The use of thermocouple meters for ac measurement leads to a meterscale which is –

    a) linear

    b) square law

    c) logarithmic

    d) exponential

50. If low pressure of the order of 10^-6mm of Hg is to be measure then the instrument of choice would be-

    a) compound pressure gauge

    b) thermocouple vacuum gauge

    c) pirani gauge

    d) ionization type vacuum gauge

    In the given circuit if the power dissipated in the 6W resister is zero then V is –

    a)

    
    
    

51. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given figure. The resistor will be non inductive if –

    

    a)

    b)

    c)

    d)

52. SCR turns OFF from conducting state to blocking state on –

    a) reducing gate current

    b) reversing gate voltage

    c) reducing anode current below holding current value

    d) applying ac to the gate

53. Static V-I characteristics of an SCR with different gate drives applied to the gate are indicated by-

    a) I 91 > I 90 " name="G54" type="radio"> I₉₂ > I ₉₁ > I ₉₀

    b) V91 > V90 " name="G54" type="radio"> V₉₂ > V₉₁ > V₉₀

    c) P91 > P90 " name="G54" type="radio"> P₉₂ > P₉₁ > P₉₀

    d) either a or b

54. Each diode of a 3 phase, 6-pulse bridge diode rectifier conducts for-

    a) 60^o

    b) 120⁰

    c) 180⁰

    d) 90⁰

55. A load, consisting of R = 10W and wL = 10W is being fed from 230 V, 50 Hz source through a 1 phase voltage controller. For a firing angle delay of 30⁰ , the rms value of load current would be-

    a) 23 A

    

    

    

56. The total number of SCRs conducting simultaneously in a 3 phase full converter with overlap considered has the sequence of-

    a) 3,3, 22

    b) 3, 3, 3, 2

    c) 3, 2, 3, 2

    d) 2, 2, 2, 3

57. A single phase voltage controller, using two SCRs in antiparallel is found to be operating as a controlled rectifier. This is because

    a) load is R and pulse gating is used

    b) load is R and high frquendy carrier gating is used

    c) load is RL and pulse gating is used

    d) load is RL and continuous gating is used

58. The inverse Fourier Transform of

    

    

    

    

    

59. In a GTO anode current begins to fall when gate current-

    a) is negative peak at time t = 0

    b) is negative peak at t = shortage period t_s

    c) just begins to become negative at t = 0

    d) is negative peak at t = (t_s + fall time)

60. Power amplifiers and Audio use

    a) Ferrite core

    b) Air core

    c) Solid iron core

    d) Laminated iron core

61. The amplifiers which are inserted at intervals amplify the signal and compensate for transmission less on the cable are called-

    a) Line amplifiers

    b) Equalizing amplifiers

    c) Rep eaters

    d) Compandors

62. A solid state device named TRIAC acts as a ----- switch

    a) 3 terminal unidirectional

    b) 2 terminal unidirectional

    c) 3 terminal bi-directional

    d) 2 terminal bi-directional

63. Identify the fastest logic circuit when speed of operation is concerned-

    a) TTL

    b) RTL

    c) DTL

    d) ATL

64. An amplifier CE is characterized by-

    a) Low voltage gain

    b) Moderate power gain

    c) Very high output impedance

    d) Signal phase reversal

65. The standard symbol for EX-OR gate is –

    a) b)

    c) d)

66. Boolean algebra is based on –

    a) numbers

    b) logic

    c) truth

    d) symbols

67. Magnetic amplifiers are used for –

    a) voltage amplification

    b) power amplification

    c) current amplification

    d) frequency amplification

68. Number of resistors required for an N bit D/A converter in R-2R ladder D/A converter is-

    a) 4N

    b) 1N

    c) 3N

    d) 2N

69. 'Not allowed' condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –

    a) s = 0, R = 0

    b) s = 1, R = 1

    c) s = 0, R = 1

    d) s = 1, R = 0

70. In a PID controlles the transfer function G(s) is

    

    

    

    

71. A time invariant linear stable system is forced with an input x(t) = A sin wt under steady state conditions, the output Y(t) of the system will be –

    a) A sin (wt + f), where f = tan^-1|G(jw) |

    b) A G (jw) | A sin [wt + G(jw)]

    c) | G (jw) | A sin [2 wt + G (jw)]

    d) | G (jw) A sin [wt + G (jw)]

    x(t)-------G(s)---------y(t)

72. Mark the wrong statement for two phase servo motor –

    a) The rotor diameter is small

    b) The rotor resistance is low

    c) The applied voltages are seldom balanced

    d) The torque speed characterstic are linear.

73. The gain phase plot of open loop transfer function of four different systems labelled A, B, C, and D

    are shown in the figure. The correct sequence of the increasing order of stability of the four systems will be-

    

    a) A, B, C, D

    b) D, C, B, A

    c) B, A, D, C,

    d) B, C, D, A

74. A unity feedback system has G(S) = . In the loot locus, the break away point occurs between

    a) S = 0 and –1

    b) S = -1 and ¥

    c) S = -1 and –2

    d) S =-2 and – ¥

75. Twice in a year a few minute disturbance occurs in space communication during sun-blinding when --- are in line

    a) Sun and satellite

    b) Sun and earth station

    c) Satellite and earth station

    d) Sun, satellite and earth station

76. The traffic handling capacity of an Earth station on the up link depends on-

    a) It’s EIRP

    b) Satellite antenna gain

    c) Noise associated with the satellite

    d) All of the above

77. A supergroup pilot is –

    a) applied at each multiplexing bay

    b) used to regulate the gain of individual repeaters

    c) applied at each adjustable equalizer

    d) fed in at a GTE

78. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 4, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of

    a) Ö2

    b) 2

    c) 4

    d) 8

79. In the given circuit the capacitor C is almost shorted for the frequency range of interest of the input signal . Under this condition the voltage gain of the amplifier will be-

    h_fe = 100 h_ie = 1K –

    

    a) 0.33

    b) 0.5

    c) 0.66

    d) 1

80. Microwave frequency bond is-

    a) 30 MHz –300 MHz

    b) 300 MHz –3 GHz

    c) 300 MHz –10 GHz

    d) 300 MHz – 30 GHz

81. Directional couplers are designed as-

    a) coupler of two-wave guide

    b) measuring instrument to measure power of signal through wave-guide

    c) director to the signal flow

    d) None of the above

82. Gyrator has a -

    a) Phase difference of 180⁰ for transmission from port 1 to port 2 & no phase shift for transmission from port 2 to port 1

    b) Phase difference of 180⁰ for transmission from port 1 to port 2 & no phase shift for transmission from port 1 to port 2

    c)180⁰ phase difference for transmission from either port

    d) 0⁰ Phase difference for transmission from either port

83. In klyrtron tube for getting oscillations-

    a) electron beam travels & RF field remains stationary

    b) both electron beam & RF field travels in same direction

    c) both electron & RF field remains stationary

    d) RF field travels & electron beam remains stationary

84. The most noisy among below is –

    a) IMPATT diode

    b) Klyrtron

    c) GUNN diode

    d) TWT amplifier

85. The GUNN mode of gunn effect oscillator is also called as –

    a) Domain mode

    b) Delayed domain mode

    c) Quenched domain mode

    d) LSA mode

86. The total noise voltage across series ckt is –

    a)

    b)

    c)

    d)

87. The vertical height of F₁ layer in ionospheric layer is –

    a) 180 km

    b) 70 km

    c) 110 km

    d) 400 km

88. 8085 mP contains instruction in instruction set-

    a) 64

    b) 74

    c) 246

    d) 256

89. If the clock freq. is 5 MHz how much time is required to execute on instruction 18 T-states-

    a) 3.6 m sec)

    b) 36 m sec)

    c) 36 m sec)

    d) 36 sec)

90. In 8085 mP a word is equal to-

    a) 8 bit

    b) 16 bit

    c) 32 bit

    d) 64 bit

91. The instruction used to set continuous loops-

    a) JC

    b) JMP

    c) JP

    d) JPE

92. What happen when RET instruction executed -

    a) data retrieved from stock to register

    b) data from register saved on the stock

    c) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock.

    d)16 bit address from stock retrieved

93. DMA is a process-

    a) Interrupt data transfer.

    b) high speed data transfer under control of microprocessor

    c) high speed data transfer under control of DMA controller.

    d) Interrupt data read

94. No. of boolean function can be generated from 3 variables-

    a) 4

    b) 8

    c) 16

    d) 256

95. The data storage in dynamic RAM is cell of-

    a) capacitance

    b) transistor

    c) flip flop

    d) transistor acting as capacitor

96. What is 9’s complement of 23-

    a) 76

    b) 77

    c) 78

    d) 79

97. An array is collection of -

    a) different data type scattered throughout memory

    b) same data type scattered throughout memory

    c) same data type placed next to each other in memory

    d) different data type placed next to each other in memory

98. While reading from the memory location for active high i/p pins-

    a) Read and chip select i/p must be at logical 0 level

    b) Read at 0 and chip select at logical 1 level

    c) Read at 1 and chip select at logical 0 level

    d) Read and chip select i/p must be at logical 1 level

99. When all i/p bits of AND gate are zero then o/p will be-

    a) 0

    b) 1

    c) un-defined

    d) none

100. The fan out comparison between TTL logic and DRL logic is

     a) Both logic having higher fan out

     b) TTL logic having higher fan out than DRL logic

     c) TTL logic having lower fan out than DRL logic

     d) Both logic having lower fan out

101. I was asked to perform the task of numbering points we had scored –

     a) sad

     b) said

     c) tallow

     d) strenous

102. The taste is rancid as the rank is –

     a) odour

     b) look

     c) smell

     d) sound

103. Troupe is a group of performers in a –

     a) play

     b) circus

     c) cinema

     d) orchestra

104. Complete the sentence with correct alternative

     He is --- well today-

     a) no

     b) none

     c) not

     d) nought

105. Fritter is –

     a) sour

     b) chafe

     c) dissipate

     d) cancel

106. The sun rays falls vertically on-

     a) Tropics

     b) Doldrums

     c) Poles

     d) Equator

107. In India ‘Lotus’ award is given in the field of-

     a) Literature

     b) Films

     c) Sports

     d) Social Service

108. The Chauri-Chaura incident is related to

     a) A major offensive by underground revolutionaries

     b) Large scale looting of government property by congress worker

     c) Massive police firing on unarmed satyagrahis

     d) the burning of a police post by a mob

109. Dadamuni Ashok Kumar deceased on-

     a) 10 December 2001

     b) 20 December 2001

     c) 10 January 2001

     d) 20 January 2001

110. The first batsman in Test history to aggregate 350 plus runs in a Test Match is-

     a) Sanath Jaisurya

     b) Brian Lara

     c) Sachin Tendulkar

     d) Steve Waugh

111. Antibiotics which are effective against more than one type of bacteria are known as-

     a) Surya drugs

     b) Multibiotics

     c) Broad-spectrum

     d) Anti metabodies

112. The books Sushrut Sanhita and Charak S anhita are related to-

     a) Hindu rituals

     b) Interpretation of Puranas

     c) Interpretation of Vedas

     d) Ayurvedic system of medicine

113. An enzyme is a protein that -

     a) Is used by the body as a food

     b) Acts as an organic catalyst

     c) Forms the hair and nails of the body

     d) Make up the membranes of the cells

114. Atal Behari Vajpayee was Prime Minister for 13 days in-

     a) May 1996

     b) June 1997

     c) September 1996

     d) July 2000

115. RBI lowers the deposit rates ceiling for non banking finance companies from 14 percent to – percent per annum-

     a) 12.5

     b) 11.5

     c) 10.5

     d) 9.5

116. Booker prize is won in the field of -

     a) Science

     b) Medicine

     c) Fiction writing

     d) Adventure

117. Leprosy is caused by-

     a) Bacterium

     b) Virus

     c) Protozoa

     d) Helminthes

118. Zojila is a pass between-

     a) Kashmir valley and Ladakh

     b) Lahaul valley and Spiti

     c) Chumbi valley and Sikkim

     d) Aurnachal Pradesh and Tibet

119. Deforestation results in-

     1. Flora destruction

     2. Fauna destruction

     3. Ecological misbalance

     a) 1, 2 and 3

     b) 1 and 3

     c) 1 and 2

     d) 2 and 3

THE ANSWERS ARE NOT CORRECT

1. When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms-

   a.) Resistance

   b.) Reactance

   c.) Impedance

   d.) None

2. Oscillator crystal are made of –

   a.) Silicon

   b.) Germanium

   c.) Quartz

   d.) None

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-

   a. )Air

   b. )Ferrite

   c.) Powdered ion

   d.) Steel

4. If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area 'A' and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –

   

   a.)

   b.) C

   c.) 2C

   d.) 4C

5. A superconductor is a –

   a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature

   b.) A conductor having zero resistance

   c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility

   d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

6. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –

   a) 8.05 pF

   b) 10.05pF

   c.) 16.01pF

   d.) 20.01pF

7. Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –

   a.) Inductance

   b.) Capacitance

   c.) Resistance

   d.) None

8. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –

   a.) Resistance in the line

   b.) Capacitor in series with contacts

   c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts

   d.) None

9. RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –

   a.) Class 'A'

   b.) Class 'b'

   c.) Class 'C'

   d.) None

10. The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –

    a.) High positive

    b.) High negative

    c.) Low positive

    d.) Zero

11. The input gate current of a FET is –

    a.) a few microamperes

    b.) negligibly small

    c.) a few milliamperes

    d.) a few amperes

12. In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –

    

    a.) 25 mA

    b.) 40 mA

    c.) 25/16 mA

    d.) 10 mA

13. A step recovery diode –

    a.) has on extremely short recovery time

    b.) conducts equally well in both directions

    c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator

    d.) is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals

14. In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with V_CC 10V, the value of V_CE (Q) should be approximately-

    a.) 0.1V

    b.) 5V

    c.) 10V

    d) V

15. In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –

    a.) source

    b.) drain

    c.) gate

    d.) none

16. The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –

    a.) Triac

    b.) UJT

    c.) Diac

    d.) SCR

17. A typical optical fibre has –

    a.) High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding

    b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding

    c.) Both a and b

    d.) None

18. In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –

    

    a.) 9

    b.) 11

    c.) 10

    d.) 21

19. When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be –

    

    a.) 3 – j1

    b.) 3 + j9

    c.) 7.5 + j 2.5

    d.) 7.5 – j 2.5

20. In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load –

    

    a.) 5

    b.) 6.5

    c.) 8

    d.) 9

21. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z₀ is the characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-

    a.) Z₀ cot h Öl

    b.) Z₀ cot Öl

    c.) Z₀ tan h.Ö l

    d.) Z₀ tan Öl

22. The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –

    a.) l

    b.) l/4

    c.) l/2

    d.) l/8

23. A relatively permanent information is stored in

    a. ) ROM

    b.) RAM

    c.) PROM

    d.) Volatile memory

24. The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to –

    

    

    b.) RC

    c.) 2RC

    d.) 4RC

25. If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch 's' and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be –

    

    a.) cos50tA

    b.) 2A

    c.) 2cos100tA

    d.) 2sin50tA

26. When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R₁, R₂ and R₃ will be respectively –

    

    a) 9W, 6W and 6W

    b.) 6W, 6W and 9W

    c.) 9W, 6W and 9W

    d.) 6W, 9W and 6W

27. When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –

    

    

    

    d.) indeterminate

28. Joule/coulomb is the unit of -

    a.) Electric field potential

    b.) Potential

    c .) Charge

    d.) None of the above

29. The electric field line and equipotential lines-

    a.) Are parallel to each other

    b.)Are one and same

    c.) Cut each other orthogonally

    d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle

30. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z₀ is the characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line

    

    

    

    

31. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X₁ and –X₁ respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-

    a.) In the +x direction

    b.) In the –x direction

    c. ) In the +y direction

    d.) In the –y direction

32. The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-

    a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation

    b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation

    c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation

    d. ) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation

33. The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-

    a.) TM₀₁

    b.)TE₁₀

    c.) TM₁₁₂

    d.)TE₁₁

34. When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –

    

    

    

    

35. . When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be

    a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value

    b.)Remain the same

    c. )Increase

    d.)Decrease to zero

36. When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z₀ = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-

    a.) A short – circuited stub at the load

    b.)An inductance at the load

    c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load

    d.)none of the above

37. As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –

    a.) less accurate

    b.) more accurate

    c.) equally accurate

    d.) none.

38. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –

    a.) VTVM

    b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope

    c.) Moving iron voltmeter

    d.) Digital multimeter

39. Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?

    a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.

    b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5.

    c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero

    d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –

40. When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm² each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –

    a.) 11.1

    b.) 44.2

    c.) 52.3

    d.) 66.3

41. The Q of a radio coil –

    a.) is independent of frequency

    b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases

    c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases

    d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency

42. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –

    a.) 0.5

    b.) 1.5

    c.) 2.5

    d.) 1.75

43. The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –

    a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)

    b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)

    c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)

    d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)

44. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –

    a.) -200⁰C to 500⁰C

    b.) 0⁰C to 500⁰C

    c.) 500⁰C to 1200⁰C

    d.) 1200⁰C to 2500⁰C

45. In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –

    

    a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)

    b.) Silicon (Si)

    c.) Copper (Cu)

    d.) Germanium (Ge)

46. When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –

    a.) 1

    b.) 2

    c.) 3

    d.) 4

47. The circuit symbol for a GTO is

    a. b.

    c. d.

48. In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters

    

    a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction

    b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction

    c.) step up device

    d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device

    In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.

    S is closed at t = 0 the

    maximum value of current and the

    time at which it reaches this value are respectively.

    

    a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS

49. b.) 50 A, 30 mS

    c.) 100 A, 62.828 mS

    d.) 400 A, 31.414 mS

50. 50. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be-

    

    a.) 200 A

    b.) 170.7 A

    c.) 141.4 A

    d.) 70.7 A

51. The transfer function of an amplifier is given by

    

    The high 3-db frequency of the amplifier will approximately

    a.) 5850 KHZ

    b.)585 KHZ

    c.) 5850 HZ

    d.)585HZ

52. In comparison to full wave rectifier with two diodes the four divide bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of -

    a). Higher current carrying

    b.)Lower ripple factor

    c.) Higher efficiency

    d.)Lower peak increase voltage require

53. Power output increase in a class-c amplifier-

    a.) If the conduction angle decrease

    b).If the conduction angle increase

    c.) Are not governed by the conduction angle

    d.)None of the above

54. A transistor with h_ie = 1.5 k and h_fe = 75 is used in an emitter follower circuit where R₁ and R₂ are used for normal biasing . Approximate value of it’s current amplification is-

    a.)75

    b.)76

    c.)75/76

    d.)-75

55. Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-

    a.) It is biased almost to saturation

    b.)Its quiescent current is low

    c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input

    d.)It is biased well below cut off

56. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-

    a.) Direct coupling

    b.)Impedance coupling

    c.) R C coupling

    d.)Transformer coupling

57. In the circuit shown in the given figure R_f provides

    

    a.) Current series feedback

    b.)Current shunt feedback

    c.) Voltage series feedback

    d.)Voltage shunt feedback

58. Mark the correct relation for the junction transistor

    

    

    

    

59. Data in the serial form can be converted into parallel form by using –

    a.) PISO shift register

    b.) SOIP shift register

    c.) SIPO shift register

    d.) POIS shift register

60. PROMs are used to store-

    a.) bulk information

    b.) information to be accessed rarely

    c.) sequence information

    d.) relatively permanent information

61. The horizontal axis in a 3 bit unipolar D/A converter represents-

    a.) Output bit combination

    b.) analog output voltage

    c.) input bit combination

    d.) none of the above

62. 'Not allowed' condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –

    a.) s = 0, R = 0

    b.) s = 1, R = 1

    c.) s = 0, R = 1

    d.) s = 1, R = 0

63. Name the fastest logic family-

    a) TTL

    b.) RTL

    c.) DCTL

    d.) ECL

64. Equation corresponding to De Morgan's theorem in Boolean Algebra is –

    a.) (A+B) (A+B) = AA + AB + BA + BB

    

    c.) A + AB = A

    d.) None of the above

65. In the given fig find radix of the system –

    

    a.) 2
    b.) 4

    c.) 6

    d.) 8

66. Modems are used for data transmission telephone lines to –

    a.) increase the transmission capacity

    b) improve noice performance

    c.) incorporate error control coding

    d.) eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal

67. The figure of a control system is shown. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is-

    

    a.)

    b.) 3

    c.) 4

    d.) 5

68. Identify the example of open-loop system-

    a.) A windscreen wiper

    b.) Aqualung

    c.) Respiratory system of an animal

    d.) A system for controlling Anti-rocket missiles.

69. Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-

    1. (5 – 4e^-2+) u(t)

    2. (e^-2t +5) (u(t))

    3 .V(t) + 8e^-2t u(t)

    4 . V(t) + 4e^-2t 4(t)

    Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-

    a.) 1&3

    b.) 1&4

    c.) 2&4

    d.) 1&4

70. A system is described by

    

    To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method the following V functions are considered.

    

    Mark the most suitable V-function in this case-

    a.) Only V₁

    b.) Only V₂

    c.) Both V₁ and V₂

    _d.) Neither V₁ nor v₂

71. Identity the polar plot of a typical type zero system with open loop transfer function

    

    

    

    

    

72. The scattering matrix of a magic –tee shown in the given figure is-

    

    

    

    

73. Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-

    1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.

    2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.

    3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.

    4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    Codes

    a.) 1 and 4

    b.) 2 and 3

    c.) 1 and 3

    d.) 2 and 4

74. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos² (150at)

    The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is

    a.) 150 samples per second

    b.) 200 samples per second

    c.) 300 samples per second

    d.) 350 samples per second

75. In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.

    a.) 34 and 106

    b.) 52. And 88

    c.) 106 and 142

    d.) 34 and 142

76. Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –

    a.) Pulse radar

    b.) Tracking radar

    c.) MTI radar

    d.) Mono pulse radar

77. The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –

    a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm

    b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm

    c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed

    d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing

78. Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-

    a.) Compression of the modulating signal

    b.) Expansion of the modulating signal

    c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.

    d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.

79. In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-

    a.) reflection from the ionosphere

    b.) line of sight mode

    c) reflection from the ground

    d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.

80. Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to

    a.) increase the gain of the system

    b). increase the bandwidth of the system

    c.) reduce the size of the main reflector

    d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.

81. In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-

    a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.

    b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.

    c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid

    d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.

82. Circuit in the given figure represents. –

    

    a.) an astable multivibrator

    b.) A monostable multivibrator

    c.) Voltage controlled oscillator

    d.) Ramp generator

83. . . D = r is-

    a.) Maxwell's 1^st equation

    b.) Maxwell's II equation

    c.) Maxwell's III equation

    d.) Maxwell’s IV equation

84. In a rectangular wave-guide which TM mode exists-

    a.) TM₀₀

    b.) TM₀₁

    c.) Tm₁₀

    d.) TM₁₁

85. In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.

    a). port 4

    b). port 3

    c.) port 2.

    d.) port 3 & 4.

    

86. For high power i.e. 10 w to 50 kw measurement –

    a.) Barometer are used

    b.) Thermisters are used

    c.) Calorimetric technique

    d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used

87. The difference between TWT & klystron is –

    a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time

    b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time

    c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact

    d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact

88. Which one is most suitable for transmission through wave guide-

    a.) Hown antennas

    b.) Bioconical antennas

    c.) helical antenna

    d. )Discone

89. The skip distance of microwave is given by –

    a.)

    b. )

    c.)

    d.)

90. How many general purpose registers 8085mp-

    a.) 4

    b.) 6

    c.) 8

    c.) 10

91. 8085 mP has no. of addressing modes-

    a.) 2

    b.) 3

    c.) 4

    d.) 5

92. What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction

    a.) z = 0, cy = 0

    b.) z = 0, cy = 1

    c.) z = 1, cy = 0

    d.) z = 1, cy = 1

93. Microprocessor accept interrupt only if.

    a.) interrupt flip flop disabled.

    b.) when INTA signal is low.

    c. ) interrupt flip flop enabled.

    d.) none of above.

94. Microprogramming is a technique

    a.) for programming the microprocessor

    b.) for writing small programs efficiently

    c.) for programming the control steps of computer

    d.) for programming o/p / i/p

95. High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help of

    a.) interpreter

    b.) compiler

    c.) operating

    d.) system

96. (10110011)₂ = (?)8

    a.) 253

    b.) 263

    c.) 273

    d.) 283

97. A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into-

    a.) NAND

    b.) NOR

    c.) AND

    d.) NOPE.

98. The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be-

    a.) AND

    b.) OR

    c.) NAND

    d.) X-OR

99. A symbol of JK flip flop is-

    

    

    

    

100. A demultiplener-

     a.) has multiple i/p and single o/p

     b.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p

     c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p

     d.) has single i/p and single o/p

101. . Which of the following best describes the authour`s attitude toward fairy tales ?

     a.) fascination

     b.) open approval.

     c.) Indulgent tolerance.

     d.) Scornful.

102. What type of sentence is this ?

     Hurray! We won the match

     a.) Exclamatory

     b.) assertive

     c.) Negative

     d.) Affirmative

103. Before which of the following word will you put 'a'

     a.) hour

     b.) M. A.

     c.) Umbrella

     d.) Man

104. The noun form of 'fresh' is –

     a.) freshly

     b.) freshen

     c.) fresheners

     d.) fresh itself

105. The word 'clang' is an example of –

     a.) Simile

     b.) inversion

     c.) onomatopoeia

     d.) irony

106. The Forbes magazine acclaimed Azim Premji as richest India's is the chairman of-

     a.) Pentafour software

     b) Infosys

     c.) IBM

     d.) Wipro

107. Bharat Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to-

     a.) Lata Mangeshkar and Zakeer Hussain

     b.) Zakeer Hussain and Bismillah Khan

     c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar

     d.) Lata Mangeshkar and Ustad Amzad Ali Khan

108. Mr. George W-Bush takes over as ------ President of the united states of America succeeding Mr. Bill Clinton-

     a.) 42^nd

     b.) 43^rd

     c.) 40^th

     d.) 45^th

109. New Chief Minister of Pondicherry is-

     a.) T. Venkat Naidu

     b.) K. Hari Harh

     c.) N. Rengaswany

     d.) M. Mudliar

110. No court has the jurisdiction to interfere with the election process once set in motion by the Election commission. This is enshrined in Article-

     a.) 311

     b.) 329

     c.) 356

     d.) 365

111. Ostrich is a-

     a.) Running bird

     b.) Flying bird

     c) Swimming bird

     d.) Migratory bird

112. The main atmospheric gas responsible for green house is-

     a.) Oxygen

     b.) Nitrogen

     c.) Ozone

     d.) Carbon-dioxide

113. Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop-

     a.) Rice

     b.) groundnut

     c.) Sugarcane

     d.) gram

114. The function of World Bank is to-

     a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economy

     b.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates

     c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments

     d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade

115. Speed of sound is maximum in-

     a. )Water

     b.) Air

     c.) Steel

     d.) Vacuum

116. “Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these-

     a.) Subhash Chandra Bose

     b.) Jawaharlal Nehru

     c.) Lajpat Rai

     d.) Bhagat Singh

117. Durand cup is associated with-

     a.) Hockey

     b.) Tennis

     c.) Football

     d.) Badminton

118. Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.

     a.) 1908

     b.) 1910

     c.) 1913

     d.) 1914

119. India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on-

     a.) May 18, 1975

     b.) May 20, 1974

     c) May 17, 1974

     d.) May 17, 1974

120. An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-

     a.) Asian development Bank

     b.) World Bank

     c.) Swiss Bank

     d.) Reserve Bank of India