Showing posts with label Bank of Baroda. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Bank of Baroda. Show all posts

BANK OF BARODA-Clerk posts at ANDAMAN & NICOBAR Dec2009

NOTIFICATION FOR RECRUITMENT OF CLERICAL STAFF IN BANK OF
BARODA FOR ITS BRANCH AT ANDAMAN & NICOBAR ISLANDS

EMOLUMENTS : Basic Pay  in Time Scale of Rs. 4410 – 13210     plus DA, HRA, CCA etc. as per
Bipartite Settlement amended from time to time (Pay Scales are due for upward  revision)

AGE  :(As on 01.12.2009)  Minimum  Age:  18  years  Maximum  age:  28  years.  (Relaxation  of  age  for
Reserved Candidates as per Government guidelines)

EDUCATIONAL  QUALIFICATIONS   (As on 01.12.2009)
A 10 + 2 / Intermediate / HSC pass with 55% marks (50% for PWD & EXSM)
OR  A Degree from recognized University.

PROBATION  PERIOD
Minimum period of 6 months. Before the probation period comes to an end, the  performance  of  the  newly  recruited  Clerical  Staff  will  be  evaluated  and  the  probation  period  of  those  staff  whose  performance  fails  to  meet  Bank’s  expectation, may be extended.


Vacancy:  02 posts (OBC-1, Gen-1)

Last Date: 31.01.2010

For complete details Click here

Bank of Baroda Agriculture Officers

Recruitment of -200- Agriculture Officers

Bank of Baroda, India’s International Bank, with a network of more than 2850 branches in India enjoys the unique distinction of overseas presence in 25 countries. The global business of the Bank is over Rs.2,60,000 crores. The Bank’s Mission is “To be a top ranking National Bank of International Standards committed to augment stakeholder value through Concern, Care and Competence”. The Bank believes that its people, process and technology are the key drivers for delivering customer service. The Bank firmly believes that its Human Resources are the most valuable asset and the HR Mission of the Bank is “Creating Competence and Passion for Business Excellence”.

The Bank is transforming itself into a ‘Technology-enabled Customer-centric Financial Services Organization’, in order to be in tandem with the modern customers’ aspirations. Having completed 100 years of purposeful existence, we are architecting and laying a strong foundation for creating “A Bank of the Future for the Next Century and for emerging as a Financial Conglomerate and as a One-Stop Shop for Financial Services”, to deliver world-class banking experience to our customers.

We are looking for -200- young, qualified, energetic and active minds to be partners in the growth of the Bank as Agriculture Officers in Junior Management Grade / Scale-I.

Candidates are advised to apply only ‘online’ & requested to carefully go through the detailed advertisement in Bank’s website www.bankofbaroda.com before applying online.

DETAILS OF VACANCIES:

Grade / Scale of Pay
No. of Vacancies
Age (as on 01.10.2008)
SC
ST
OBC
Others
Total
Junior Management Grade / Scale -I 34 21 78 67 200 Minimum - 21 years
Maximum - 30 years

Approximate total emoluments (Pay scales are due for revision) at the start of the Scale plus DA, CCA, HRA will be Rs. 15,228/- p.m. in metropolitan centres. In addition, accommodation (in lieu of HRA), Conveyance, Medical-Aid, LTC, Retirement benefits etc. are admissible as per the rules of the Bank.

Abbreviations stand for : - SC - Scheduled Caste, ST - Scheduled Tribe, OBC - Other Backward Classes, PWD - Persons With Disability, OH- Orthopaedically Handicapped , HI – Hearing Impaired, VI- Visually Impaired.

NOTE:-

  1. -6- Posts are reserved for PWD { OH-2 , HI–2 , & VI–2 }. As the reservation for Persons with Disability candidates is on horizontal basis, the selected candidates will be placed in the appropriate category (viz. SC/ST/OBC/OTHERS) to which they belong.

  2. The number of vacancies as also the number of reserved vacancies is provisional and may vary according to actual requirements of the Bank.
IMPORTANT DATES: -
Website Link Open
From 08.10.2008 to 03.11.2008
LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATION PRINT OUT WITH DD AND COPIES OF CERTIFICATES
08.11.2008
LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATION PRINT OUT WITH DD AND COPIES OF CERTIFICATE FROM FAR FLUNG AREAS
15.11.2008
DATE OF WRITTEN TEST
14.12.2008 (SUNDAY)

NOTE:- The following are the Far Flung Areas:-

The candidates staying abroad and for those posting applications from Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshdweep, Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Ladakh Division of J & K State, Lahaul and Spiti district and Pangi Sub Division of Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh.

An application received after the last date will not be entertained by the Bank.

2. HOW TO APPLY :-

Eligible candidates are required to apply only ‘online’ through our website www.bankofbaroda.com. No other means/ mode of application will be acceptable.

Before registering their applications on the website, candidates should possess the following :

  1. Valid email ID.

  2. Demand Draft of Rs. 250/- as application fee for General/OBC and Ex-Servicemen (Gen/OBC) candidates.

  3. Demand Draft of Rs. 50/- as postage charges for SC/ST& PWD candidates.

No other financial instrument other than Demand Draft is acceptable.

After applying online, candidate is required to download the system generated Print out of the application. This system generated print out of the application should be signed by the candidate and sent along with:

  1. The application fee in the form of Demand Draft for Rs 250/- (Rs 50/- for SC/ST/PWD candidates) favoring "BANK OF BARODA- RECRUITMENT OF AGRICULTURE OFFICERS - PROJECT 2008" , payable at Mumbai.

    Note:

    1. Candidates are advised to apply in the beginning phase of applying online, so as to avoid last moment rush resulting in difficulties in uploading their application online

    2. Even if the Bank extends the date of online receipt of application by one or two days, the validity of date for DD and last date of receipt of application will not change.

  2. Copies of certificates pertaining to age, educational qualifications, experience and caste certificates in the case of SC/ST/OBC candidates.

  3. Medical Certificate in case of PWD candidates.

  4. Photograph pasted in the given place and signed across.

Note: Copies of certificates should be self-attested.

The print out of the application along with the documents mentioned above should be sent by ORDINARY POST in a closed envelope superscribed as “APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF AGRICULTURE OFFICERS - PROJECT 2008” at the following address: -

BANK OF BARODA - RECRUITMENT OF AGRICULTURE OFFICERS - PROJECT 2008
Post Box No. 7640
Malad (West) MUMBAI-400 064.

3. ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA AND GENERAL INFORMATION:

  1. QUALIFICATION: (As on 01.10.2008)

    Minimum 55% marks ( 50% FOR SC/ST/PWD/Ex-Servicemen) or equivalent in Graduation in Basic Agricultural Sciences & related subjects viz. Vetinary Science, Horticulture, Animal Husbandry, Dairy Technology, Fisheries and Agriculture Engineering.

    Candidates with Post Graduation in Agriculture with subjects as mentioned above or Certification or Post Graduation Diploma in Rural Management / Agri Communications / Agri Business Management will be given preference.

    EXPERIENCE: 1 - 2 years of relevant experience of Rural / Agri-Business development through lending, selling and marketing of financial products & services in rural market. Experience in Bank / Financial Institution in the relevant field will be preferred.

  2. AGE: (As on 01.10.2008) Minimum: 21 Years, Maximum: 30 Years

    RELAXATION IN UPPER AGE LIMIT :-
    1. Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe candidates by 5 years.

    2. Other Backward Classes candidates by 3 years.

    3. In the case of ex-servicemen and commissioned officers including ECOs / SSCOs who have rendered at least 5 years military service and have been released on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within the next one year from the last date for receipt of application) other than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency or on account of physical disability attributable to military service or on invalidment, by 5 years for selection through written test & interview and by 3 years plus period of service in Armed Forces for selection through interview only, subject to ceiling as per Govt. guidelines.

    4. All persons who have ordinarily been domiciled in Kashmir Division of J & K State during 01.01.1980 and 31.12.1989 by 5 years.

    5. For Persons With Disability by 10 years which by cumulation becomes (a) by 15 years for SC/ST (b) by 13 years for OBC and (c) by 10 years for General.

    6. The Children/Family Members of those who died in the 1984 riots by 5 years. Persons eligible under age relaxation under this criterion must produce a certificate from the District Magistrate to the effect that they are eligible for relief in terms of the Rehabilitation Package for 1984 Riot Affected Persons sanctioned by the Government and communicated vide Ministry of Finance, Dept. of Financial Services communication No. F.No. 9/21/2006-IR dated 27.07.2007).

    Note:

    1. An ex-serviceman who has once joined a Government Job on the civil side after availing the benefits given to him as Ex-serviceman for his re-employment including a job in Public Sector Undertaking, ceases to enjoy Ex-serviceman status for his further employment.

    2. The relaxation in upper age limit is cumulative as per the Government guidelines.

    3. All persons eligible for age relaxation under para 3 B (iv) above must produce the domicile certificate at the time of interview from the District Magistrate in the Kashmir Division within whose jurisdiction he / she had ordinarily resided or any other authority designated in this regard by Government of J & K to the effect that the candidate had ordinarily been domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of J & K during 1st January, 1980 and the 31st December, 1989.

  3. NATIONALITY/ CITIZENSHIP:

    A candidate must be either i) a Citizen of India or ii) a subject of Nepal or iii) subject of Bhutan or iv) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary may be admitted to the examination/ interview conducted by the Bank but on final selection the offer of appointment may be given only after the Government of India has issued the necessary eligibility certificate to him.

  4. PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES':-
    1. The definitions of the Visually Impaired (VI), Hearing Impaired (HI) and Orthopaedically Handicapped (OH) are as prescribed in "The Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights & Full Participation) Act, 1995.

      The Visually Impaired candidates and candidates whose writing speed is affected by cerebral palsy can use own scribe during the written examination. In all such cases where a scribe is used, the following rules will apply :
      1. The candidate will have to arrange his own scribe at his own cost
      2. The academic qualification of the scribe should be at least one grade lower than the minimum stipulated eligibility criteria
      3. The scribe should possess less percentage of marks in his own academic stream than the candidate, but in no case not more than 60% of marks. The scribe may be from any academic stream.

      4. Both the candidate as well as the scribe will have to give a suitable undertaking, confirming that the scribe fulfils all the stipulated eligibility criteria for a scribe as mentioned above. Further, in case it later transpires that he did not fulfill any of the laid down eligibility criteria or suppressed material facts, the candidature of the applicant will stand cancelled, irrespective of the result of the written test.

      5. Such candidates who use a scribe shall be eligible for extra time of 20 minutes for every hour of the examination.

    2. It is clarified that Persons With Disabilities will have to work in branches / offices which have posts identified by the Bank, as suitable for them.

  5. THE COMPETENT AUTHORITY FOR THE ISSUE OF THE CERTIFICATE TO SC/ST/OBC/PWD IS AS UNDER :-
    1. For SC/ST/OBC:

      1. District Magistrate / Additional Dist. Magistrate/ Collector / Deputy Commissioner / Additional Dy. Commissioner / Dy. Collector/First Class Stipendary Magistrate / Sub-Division Magistrate / Taluka Magistrate / Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant Commissioner

      2. Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate

      3. Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tahsildar

      4. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family normally resides.

    2. For Persons with Disability:

      Authorised Certifying Authority will be Medical Board at the District level. The Medical Board will consist of Chief Medical Officer, Sub-Divisional Medical Officer in the District and an Orthopaedic Surgeon.

4.JOB ROLE:

To promote rural lending in general and agriculture lending in particular under various schemes framed by Government and the Bank. To process large and mid-agro proposals, liaison with different Govt. Bodies / Authorities, organize promotional activities like credit camps / exhibition, analyse trends through business data and suggest ways to consolidate the Bank's market share in Rural - Agro lending. To develop various rural / agri-lending products in the current changing market scenario.

5. SELECTION PROCEDURE :-

Selection will be on the basis of performance in Written Test and Interview. The details of Written Test and Interview are as under:

  1. Eligible candidates will be required to appear for written test comprising of Objective Tests on i) Agricultural Science, ii) Quantitative Aptitude, iii)Reasoning, iv) General Socio-economic & banking Awareness, & v) English.

  2. The Written Test paper will be printed in Hindi and English version (except Test on English). Candidates may refer to any of the version.

  3. Depending upon the number of candidates against the vacancies, the Bank would call for interviews in the ratio of 1:3/1:4 as the case may be provided the SC/ST/PWD candidates have secured minimum 35% marks and other candidates have secured minimum 40% marks in the written test.

  4. Final selection will be on the basis of the ranking accorded after adding the marks obtained in the Written Test and Interview.

  5. Other detailed information regarding the written examination will be given in the "Acquaint Yourself" booklet which will be made available to the candidate along with the call-letter.

The Bank reserves the right, if required to hold a second stage of written test on the basis of order of merit in the written examination of first stage, as referred above. If the second stage of written test is held, the subsequent process of interview and further process would be on the basis of order of merit of the second stage examination.

The written test will be held at the following centres and the address of the venue will be advised in the call letters. List of written test centers with the centre codes is given below :-

Centre Code Name of Centre
11 Bangalore
12 Baroda
13 Bhopal
14 Chandigarh
15 Chennai
16 Delhi
17 Guwahati
18 Hyderabad
19 Jaipur
20 Kolkata
21 Lucknow
22 Mumbai
23 Patna

NOTE:

  1. Request for change of Centre of Examination shall NOT be entertained.

  2. Bank also reserves the right to allot the candidate to any of the centres other than the one he/she has opted for.

  3. Bank reserves it right to add / modify / delete any Centre / Venue at its sole discretion

B) INTERVIEW :- Those short listed candidates in the order of ranking in the written test as per the cut-off marks detailed above in para 5 A) ( c) shall be called for interview & the decision of the Bank in this regard shall be final.

6. APPLICATION FEE (INCLUDING POSTAGE CHARGES) (NON-REFUNDABLE) :-

  1. For SC/ST/PWD candidates - Rs. 50/- (towards postage charges only).

  2. For all others - Rs.250/- (including postage charges of Rs.50/-).

  3. Requisite Application Fee to be sent by Demand Draft/Banker's Cheque favouring "Bank of Baroda - Recruitment of Agriculture Officers - Project- 2008" payable at 'Mumbai' only. Candidate's Name, Registration Number and Date of Birth should be written on the reverse of the Demand Draft / Banker's Cheque.

  4. No other financial instrument like Cheques/ Money Orders/ Postal Orders/ Postal Stamps etc. is acceptable. Such applications will be rejected.

  5. Application once made will not be allowed to be withdrawn and fees once paid will NOT be refunded on any count nor can it be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.

  6. An application not accompanied by requisite fee as indicated in clause (a) & (b) above, and copies of testimonials will not be entertained.

7. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :-

  1. Candidates are required to apply only 'ONLINE'. Any other form of application shall be rejected.

  2. The Bank takes no responsibility for any delay in receipt or loss in postal transit of any application printout or communication.

  3. The application print-out should be sent duly signed by the candidate alongwith Demand Draft and copies of self-attested certificates pertaining to age and educational qualifications by Ordinary Post.

  4. Candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC/PWD category must submit attested photocopy of SC/ST/OBC/PWD certificate, issued by the Competent Authority in the prescribed format as prescribed by the Government of India. In case of candidates belonging to OBC category, the certificate inter-alia must specify that the candidate does not belong to 'CREAMY LAYER' section excluded from the benefits of reservation for OBCs in Civil Post and Services under Govt. of India. OBC certificate should not be more than one year old as on the date of application.

  5. PWD candidates claiming the benefit of reservations/age relaxation should submit a copy of Medical Certificate as specified in the "The Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights & Full Participation) Act, 1995 in support of their disability.

  6. The candidates will have to appear for written test and interview at their own expense. However, eligible SC/ST/PWD outstation candidates attending the interview will be reimbursed to and fro second-class ordinary train/bus fare by the shortest route on production of evidence of travel.

  7. Candidates serving in Government/Public Sector Undertakings (including banks) should send the printed application through proper channel and produce a "No Objection Certificate" from their employer at the time of interview. In the absence of the same their candidature will not be considered. However, advance copy of the application alongwith the original Demand Draft may be sent to the addressee within the stipulated time, by Ordinary Post and not through Courier / Speed Post / Registered Post.

  8. Only candidates willing to serve anywhere in India should apply.

  9. Any request for change of address, venue of written test centre, etc. will not be entertained.

  10. Before applying for the post, the candidate should ensure that he / she fulfils the eligibility and other norms mentioned in this advertisement. Decision of the Bank in all matters regarding eligibility of the candidate, the stages at which such scrutiny of eligibility is to be undertaken, the documents is to be produced for the purpose of the conduct of examination, interview, selection and any other matter relating to recruitment will be final and binding on the candidate. No correspondence or personal enquiries shall be entertained by the Bank in this behalf.

  11. In case it is detected at any stage of recruitment that a candidate does not fulfill the eligibility norms and / or that he / she has furnished any incorrect / false information / certificate / documents or has suppressed any material (facts), his / her candidature will stand cancelled. If any of these shortcomings is / are detected even after appointment, his / her services are liable to be terminated.

  12. A photocopy of the educational qualification having SSC, HSC /10 + 2 or any equivalent examination /Graduation degree / marksheet indicating the Division and Percentage should be enclosed. In addition, candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC category are required to submit an attested copy of their Caste Certificate issued by the Competent Authority. However, all candidates will have to produce original as well as attested photocopies of certificates regarding qualification, experience, date of birth and caste (if applicable), in support of their eligibility at the time of interview, failing which their candidature will be cancelled.

  13. Persons with Disabilities category candidates claiming the benefit of reservation / age relaxation should submit a copy of Medical Certificate as specified in the Disabilities Act of 1995 in support of their disability.

  14. A recent recognizable passport size photograph should be firmly pasted on the application and should be signed across by the candidate. Three copies of the same photograph should be retained for use at the time of written examination and interview. Candidates are advised not to change their appearance till the recruitment process is complete. Failure to produce the same photograph at the time of the written test / interview may lead to disqualification.

  15. Any request for change of address / Centre will not be entertained.

  16. Any resultant dispute arising out of the advertisement shall be subject to the sole jurisdiction of the Courts situated in Mumbai.

  17. The Bank takes no responsibility to connect any Certificate / Remittance sent separately.

  18. In case any dispute arising on account of interpretation of version other than English, the English version uploaded on Bank's website will prevail.

  19. No candidate is permitted to use calculator, telephones of any kind / mobiles or any such other calculating devices / instruments during the written examination / selection process.

  20. The candidates will appear for the written examination at the allotted centers at their own expenses and risk and the Bank will not be responsible for any injury / losses etc. of any nature.

  21. The Bank may at its discretion hold re-examination when found necessary in respect of a centre / venue.

  22. Appointment of selected candidate is subject to their being declared medically fit as per the requirement of the Bank and verification of their antecedents through the Police / other agencies. Such appointment will also be subject to the Service Rules of the Bank.

8. Action against candidates found guilty of misconduct :- Candidates are advised in their own interest that they should not furnish any particulars that are false, tampered, fabricated or should not suppress any material information while filling up the application form.

At the time of written examination/interview, if a candidate is (or has been) found guilty of,

  1. using unfair means during the examination

    or


  2. impersonating or procuring impersonation by any person

    or


  3. misbehaving in the examination hall or taking away the question booklet/answer sheet from the examination hall

    or


  4. resorting to any irregular or improper means in connection with his/her candidature by selection

    or


  5. obtaining support for his/her candidature by any means.

Such a candidate, in addition to rendering himself/herself liable to criminal prosecution, shall be liable :

  1. to be disqualified from the examination for which he/she is a candidate

  2. to be debarred, either permanently or for a specified period, from any examination or recruitment conducted by Bank.

The Bank would be analyzing the responses of a candidate with other appeared candidates to detect patterns of similarity. If as per the laid down procedure it is suspected that the responses have been shared and the scores obtained are not genuine/valid, the Bank reserves the right to cancel his/her candidature.

9. CALL LETTERS FOR THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION:-

The date of the Written Examination is TENTATIVELY FIXED as 14.12.2008 (Sunday). However, the exact date will be intimated in the Call Letter along with the Centre/Venue for the Examination, well in advance of the date of the Written Examination.

Call letters for the written test will be sent by post to the eligible candidates to the address given in the application. An eligible candidate who does not receive the call letter by 06.12.2008 should contact the Official at the address for the respective centres (details of which will be released in Bank's website on 4.12.2008 ) between 10.12.2008 to 13.12.2008, furnishing his / her Name, Address, Registration Number, production of counter foil of Demand Draft and a copy of Application Print Out.

Decision of the Bank in respect of all matters pertaining to this recruitment would be final and binding on all candidates.



General Manager
HR & Marketing

Place : Mumbai
Date : 08th Oct 2008


English Language Proficiency Test - Bank Probationary Officer B. Ed., M. Ed., ETT, JET, Bank Clerical, MBA, XAT, MAT and CAT

(This test is equally useful other candidates preparing for other entrance exams like B. Ed., M. Ed., ETT, JET, Bank Clerical, MBA, XAT, MAT and CAT)

Directions (Q 1-5): The following sentences contain errors in grammar, usage, diction (choice of words) or idioms and spellings. No sentence, however, contains more than one error. Each sentence has been broken up into four parts sequentially (1, 2, 3, 4). Choose the part that has the mistake and mark your answer.

1. We have no objection (1)/ to him participating in the debate (2)/ provided he cares (3)/ to observe the rules formulated by the expert committee (4).

2. There is the idea of competition, natural selection and the survival (1)/ of the fittest which purpose to explain (2)/ the natural and automatic process (3)/ of evolution and development (4).

3. In spite of their pressing into service several fire-fighters (1)/ they found it difficult (2)/ to put off (3)/ the fire which was spreading fast to the neighbouring buildings (4).

4. Rabindranath Tagore, the great Indian poet, born (1)/at a time (2)/ when there was a confluence (3)/of three revolutionary movement (4).

5. The assistant engineer was advised to give (1)/the building contract to whomever (2)/ he believed (3)/ had a strong sense of responsibility (4).

Directions (Q 6 - 8): Out of the given choices marked 1-4, select the best substitute for the leading sentence. Mark the correct choice as the answer.

6. One who is determined to take exact full vengeance for wrongs done to him:

1. vindictive

2. vengeful

3. Inductor

4. Candice

7. Custom of having many wives:

1. Homogamy

2. Polygamy

3. Matrogamy

4. Monogamy

8. A person who has no money to pay off his debts:

1. Insolvent

2. Beggar

3. Debtor

4. Creditor

Directions (Q 9-10): Give the correct antonyms of the following words out of the given choices below the leading word.

9. AUTONOMY:

1. Independent

2. Independence

3. Dependence

4. Proudy

10. ONEROUS:

1. Tough

2. Difficult

3. Easy

4. Complicated

Directions (Q 11-15): Find out the correct choice no. as the answer after changing the given sentences from Active voice to passive voice and vice versa.

11. A song will be sung by him.

1. He will be sing a song

2. He would sing a song

3. He will sing a song

4. He shall sing a song

12. They had already tried this plan.

1. This plan had already tried by them.

2. This plan had already being tried by him.

3. This plan had been already tried by them

4. This plan had already been tried by them

13. Can you please her?

1. Can she pleased by you?

2. Could she pleased by you?

3. Can she pleased by you?

4. Can she be pleased by you?

14. The child is not cutting teeth.

1. Teeth are not being cutting by the child

2. Teeth are not being cut by child

3. Teeth are not cut by the child

4. Teeth are not cutting by child

15. She was not paying the taxes.

1. The taxes not paid by her

2. The taxes are not being paid by her

3. The taxes were not being paid by her

4. The taxes is not being paid by her

Directions (Q 16-20): The questions that follow the passages are based on the text of the passages. Point out the correct answers.

Liberty is not a personal affair only, but a social contract. It is an accommodation of interests. In matters which do not touch anybody else’s liberty of course, I may be as free as I like. If I choose to go down the Strand in a dressing-gown, with long hair and bare feet, who shall say me nay? You have liberty to laugh at me, but I have liberty to be indifferent to you. And if I have a fancy for dyeing my hair, or waxing my moustache (which heaven forbid), or wearing a tall hat, a frock coat and sandals, or going to bed late or getting up early, I shall follow my fancy and ask no man’s permission. I shall not inquire of you whether I may eat mustard with my mutton. I may like mustard with my mutton. And you will not ask me whether you may follow this religion or that, whether you may marry the dark lady or the fair lady, whether you may prefer long fellow to Wordsworth, or champagne to coca cola.

16. ‘Not a personal affair’ means ______

1. not enjoyed in person.

2. not having individual affairs.

3. not concerned with individuals.

4. None of these

17. “Accommodation of interests” means

1. a place for living of interests

2. adjustment of individual interests

3. adjustment of personal ends

4. None of these

18. “Indifferent to” can be replaced by ______

1. having no interest in.

2. unconcerned about.

3. not worried about.

4. None of these

19. The word ‘fancy’ has been used twice in the passage. It means:

1. liking; liking

2. Imagination; Imaginative

3. liking; whim

4. None of these

20. ‘Inquire of you’ means ______

1. Inquire from you

2. Inquire about you

3. Inquire into your views

4. None of these

Directions (Q 21-25): Fill in the blanks with suitable propositions/words given below.

21. She was debarred ______ appearing in the exam.

1. for

2. of

3. from

4. None of these

22. His views did not coincide ______ those of his wife.

1. to

2. on

3. for

4. with

23. If you had come earlier, we ______ to see the movie.

1. would go

2. would be going

3. will have gone

4. would have gone

24. He lives ______ Andheri ______ Bombay.

1. in, in

2. at, at

3. in, at

4. at, in

25. I am astonished ______ her way of talking.

1. at

2. with

3. on

4. upon

Directions (Q 26-28): In each of the following questions an idiomatic expression, followed by the possible meanings numbers 1 to 5 is given. From the given choices, find the choice number which gives the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and mark the choice number as your answer.

26. To smell a rat

1. to see sings of plague epidemic

2. to get bad smell of a dead rat

3. to suspect foul dealing

4. to be in a bad mood

27. To have an axe to grind

1. a private end to serve

2. to fail to arouse interest

3. to have no result

4. to work for both sides

28. To eke out

1. To earn a living

2. To rush out

3. To finish oil

4. To go out of the way

Directions (Q 29-30): In the following sentences idioms/proverbs have been used, followed by their meaning in choice number 1 to 5. Mark the correct choice number as answer.

29. I raked my brains to solve this difficult problem.

1. I read number of books

2. I consulted several people

3. I used my common-sense

4. I subjected my mind to hard thinking

30 He was a king who ruled his subjects with a high hand.

1. sympathetically

2. kindly

3. democratically

4. oppressively

Directions (Q 31-33): Mark the correct choice number which is the meaning (synonym) of the leading word.

31 Garnish:

1. to adorn

2. to worship

3. to garland

4. to excuse

32. Abhor:

1. repentance

2. love

3. hate

4. persistent

33. Panacea:

1. A universal agreement

2. A universal truth

3. A universal phenomenon

4. A universal medicine

Directions (Q 34-35): In each of the sentences given below a word has been underlined and four choices marked 1 to 4 have been given. Choose the correct word which is opposite word underlined in the sentence. Mark the choice number as your answer.

34. His unscrupulous pursuit of wealth finally landed him in prison.

1. Conscientious

2. Dedicated

3. Single-minded

4. Superfluous

35. Let us not aggravate the sufferings of the poor.

1. Advocate

2. Appreciate

3. Alleviate

4. Abbreviate

Directions (Q 36-40): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word and mark the choice number as your answer.

Smoking is the biggest preventable ______ (186) ______ to mankind. Many serious ______ (187) ______ including lung cancer, bronchitis and heat attack are ______ (188) ______ to smoking habits. Smoking in any form whether cigarette, cigar, pipe, bidi or tobacco chewing has been ______ (189) ______ as a major ______ (190) ______ factor for heart attack.

36.

1. measure

2. tragedy

3. menace

4. solace

37.

1. debacles

2. diseases

3. practices

4. injuries

38.

1. caused

2. directed

3. averse

4. traced

39.

1. developed

2. explained

3. attributed

4. identified

40.

1. important

2. critical

3. risk

4. ailing

Directions (Q 41-42): Each of the following words is spelt in four different ways. One of them is correctly spelt. Pick out the correctly spelt word and mark on the OMR sheet.

41.

1. Leutinant

2. Lieutenant

3. Lieutinent

4. Lieutanant

42.

1. Charactar

2. Cheracter

3. Character

4. Characatar

Directions (Q 43-45): Mark the correct choice after changing the Narration of the leading sentence.

43. The mother said to the teacher, “Do not punish my son.”

1. The mother told the teacher not to punished her son.

2. The mother requested the teacher that her son might not be punished.

3. The mother requested the teacher that not to punish her son.

4. The mother requested the teacher not to punish her son.

44. The Judge asked the prisoner if he has any thing to say.

1. The Judge said to the prisoner, “Have you any thing to say?”

2. The Judge said to the prisoner, “If you have anything to say?”

3. The Judge said to the prisoner, “You had anything to say?”

4. The Judge said to the prisoner, Have you anything to be said?”

45. She advised me not to trust him.

1. She said to me, “Not to trust you.”

2. She said to me, “Not to Trust him.”

3. She said to me, “Do not be trust by him.”

4. She said to me, “Do not trust him.”

Directions (Q 46-50): The questions that follow the passages are based on the text of the passage. Point out the correct answers.

The third thing we must do is not to be content with mere political democracy. We must make our political democracy a social democracy as well. Political democracy cannot last unless there lies at the base of it social democracy. What does social democracy mean? it means a way of life which recognizes liberty, equality and fraternity as the principles of life. These principles of liberty, equality and fraternity are not to be treated as separate items in Trinity. They form a union of Trinity in the sense that to divorce one from the other is to defeat the very purpose of democracy. Liberty cannot be divorced from equality, equality be divorced from liberty. Nor can liberty and equality be divorced from fraternity. Without equality, liberty would produce the supremacy of the few over the many. Equality, without liberty, would kill individual initiative. Without fraternity, liberty and equality would not become a natural course of things. It would require a constable to enforce them.

46. The ‘third thing’ which the author wants us to do is ______

1. Not to be complacent with political democracy

2. Not to be happy with political democracy

3. Not to be dissatisfied with political democracy

4. None of these

47. Political democracy will end if ______

1. There is no social democracy

2. There is social democracy

3. There is political democracy

4. None of these

48. Social democracy means ______

1. Liberty, equality and fraternity

2. A way of life

3. Political democracy

4. None of these

49. The principles of liberty, equality and fraternity can be treated as ______

1. Separate

2. Unified

3. One

4. None of these

50. Liberty without equality would result in ______

1. Dictatorship

2. Supremacy of some

3. Tyranny of many

4. None of these

SAMPLE PAPER – Bank Probationary Officer Recruitment Exam

REASONING - MENTAL ABILITY - APTITUDE

1. ‘Captain’ is related to a ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Director’ is related to

(1) Supervisor (2) Employee

(3) Organisation (4) Union

(5) Customer

2. Find the odd one out of the following options

(1) Aunt (2) Child

(3) Father (4) Niece

(5) Relation

3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. “The father of his sister is the husband of my wife’s mother”. How is Ram related to Mahesh?

(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law

(3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

4. If ‘fork’ is called ‘plate’, ‘plate’ is called ‘knife’, ‘knife’ is called ‘jug’, ‘jug’ is called ‘glass’, ‘glass’ is called ‘cup’ and ‘cup’ is called ‘fork’, by what do we cut fruit?

(1) spoon (2) jug

(3) glass (4) saucer

(5) none of these

5. If ‘a’ is substituted by 26,’B’ by 25 and so on up to ‘Z’ which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY’?

(1) 33 (2) 40

(3) 37 (4) 73

(5) None of these

6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?

(1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD

(3) JOEPSF (4) HMCNQD

(5) None of these

7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all?

(1) Seeta (2) Geeta

(3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?

(1) Mahesh (2) Kamal

(3) Raman (4) Harry

(5) Cannot be determined

9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T’ and without repeating any letter?

(1) Three (2) One

(3) Two (4) None

(5) None of these

Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:

A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y É™ J

11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Five

(5) None of these

12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?

(1) 5 (2) 4

(3) 7 (4) 8

(5) None of these

13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) Two (2) Five

(3) Four (4) Three

(5) None of these

14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?

(1) # (2) 7

(3) U (4) 9

(5) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) G$M (2) K9Q

(3) ?D7 (4) 2MU

(5) PCI

16. In a certain code language’ In ba pe’ means ‘he has won’,'le ki ba’ means ‘she has lost’ and ‘in se pe’ means ‘he always won’. Which word in that language means ‘he’?

(1) in (2) pe

(3) se (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

17. X is Y’s brother. S is T’s mother and X’s aunt. How is T related to X?

(1) Sister (2) Cousin

(3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO

(3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO

(5) None of these

19. If 1 is coded as Åš, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?

(1) ? + % « # Åš (2) ? + % Åš # «

(3) ? + « % # Åš (4) Åš # « % + ?

(5) None of these

20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?

(1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN

(3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO

(5) None of these

Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions:

Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.

(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.

(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go’ advertises neither soap nor computers.

(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.

(iv) No girl advertises soap.

(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice

(vi)

21. Who advertises watches?

(1) Deepa (2) Kamal

(3) Aman (4) Priyanka

(5) None of these

22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?

(1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer

(3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap

(5) Come-watch

23. Which channel does Kamal visit?

(1) Go (2) Fun

(3) Come (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?

(1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches

(3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun

(5) None of these

25. What will Jitu advertise?

(1) Chocolates (2) Watches

(3) Computers or watches (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?

(1) 3 ½ hours (2) 2 ½ hours

(3) 4 ½ hours (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Four (4) Three

(5) None of these

28. Find the odd one out

(1) 2 (2) 7

(3) 11 (4) 13

(5) 9

29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT

(3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT

(5) None of these

30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers.

(1) 9 (2) 21

(3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these’.

Letters

M

Q

I

N

E

Y

U

G

R

Numeric Codes

2

5

3

7

1

8

4

6

9

Conditions:

(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as Åš.

(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.

(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?

31. ENIMY

(1) 1%28 (2) ?732?

(3) 17328 (4) ?7328

(5) None of these

32. GENIR

(1) ?173? (2) 6%39

(3) 6%79 (4) 61739

(5) None of these

33. QUERI

(1) 5%93 (2) ?413?

(3) ?4139 (4) ?419?

(5) None of these

34. EINUM

(1) 1%72 (2) 0%42

(3) 1374? (4) 1%43

(5) None of these

35. UNGRE

(1) Åš769 Åš (2) 4769 Åš

(3) 47691 (4) Åš7691

(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.

36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink

Conclusions:

I. Some ink are pencils.

II. All ink are lead.

37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.

Conclusions:

I. Some ACs are ovens.

II. No. AC is oven.

38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.

Conclusions:

I. Some planes are clouds.

II. Some clouds are birds.

39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.

Conclusions:

I.. Some sweets are spice.

II. No spice is salt.

40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.

Conclusions:

I. Some plastics are clothes.

II. Some plastics are papers.

Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:

Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. How is ‘cricket’ written in a code language?

I. ‘Dinesh play cricket’ is written as ‘do si ha’.

II. ‘play cricket now’ is written as ‘ha si ma’.

42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?

I. P is older than M and N but not O.

II. L is older than O.

43. When is Rahul’s birthday?

I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.

II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.

44. What is the strength of the class?

I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.

II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top.

45. How far does Shruti live from the school?

I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina’s house which is 4 kms. From thee school.

II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti’s house.

Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:

972 526 487 359 251

46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?

(1) 359 (2) 972

(3) 526 (4) 487

(5) 251

47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?

(1) None (2) One

(3) Two (4) Three

(5) None of these

48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?

(1) None (2) Two

(3) One (4) Three

(5) All five

49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?

(1) 251 (2) 359

(3) 487 (4) 526

(5) 972

50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?

(1) 972 (2) 526

(3) 487 (4) 251

(5) 359

Answer Key for Mental Aptitude Reasoning

1. (3) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (5)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (5)
21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3)
26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (5) 29. (2) 30. (5)
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (5) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (5) 39. (2) 40. (5)
41. (4) 42. (5) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (3)
46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (5)