PNB SPECIALIST OFFICER RECRUITMENT 2008

PNB SPECIALIST OFFICER RECRUITMENT 2008

PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK INVITES ON-LINE APPLICATIONS

FROM INDIAN CITIZENS FOR THE FOLLOWING POSTS:

OPENING DATE FOR ONLINE REGISTRATION : 13.08.2008

CLOSING DATE FOR ONLINE REGISTRATION : 06.09.2008

(including for candidates from far-flung areas)

DATE OF WRITTEN EXAMINATION : 05.10.2008

Post
01. Electrical Engineer MMG Scale II 3 13820-500/1-14320- 560/10-19920

02. Deputy Manager (IT) (with 2 advance increments) JMG Scale I 201 10000-470/6-12820- 500/3-14320-560/7-18240

03. Officer (IT-Banking Domain) JMG Scale I 260 10000-470/6-12820- 500/3-14320-560/7-18240

TOTAL 464

* DA, CCA, HRA/leased accommodation, Leave Fare Concession, hospitalisation benefits,

retirement benefits and other perquisites shall be as per the rules of the Bank.

1. RESERVATION OF POSTS:

Scale No. of posts SC ST OBC Gen

MMG Scale II 3 1 1 1 --

JMG Scale I 461 69 34 142 216

Abbreviations stand for: SC - Scheduled Caste, ST - Scheduled Tribe, OBC - Other Backward

Classes, Gen - General Category.

Of the 464 total posts, 18 have been reserved for physically challenged (PC) candidates.

NOTE:

a) The number of vacancies as also the number of reserved vacancies is provisional and

may vary according to the actual requirements of the Bank.

b) The definitions of the categories of disability shall be as per Govt of India guidelines.

c) It is clarified that it may not be possible to employ physically challenged candidates at all

offices/branches of the Bank and they will have to work in the posts identified by the

Bank as suitable for them.

d) Candidates belonging to reserved categories, as well as those for whom no reservation

has been announced, are free to apply for the vacancies announced for the general

category.

2. NATIONALITY/CITIZENSHIP:

A candidate must be either (i) a citizen of India or (ii) a subject of Nepal or (iii) subject of

Bhutan or (iv) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1

stJanuary, 1962 with the

intention of permanently settling in India or (v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated

from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United

Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia or

Vietnam with the intension of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate

belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) or (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a

certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Govt of India.

A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary may be allowed to appear in

the written examination/interview conducted by the Bank but on final selection the offer of

appointment will be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to

him/her by the Govt of India.

3. AGE, EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS AND POST-QUALIFICATION WORK

EXPERIENCE:

Post Code Post Age as on 01.07.2008 Educational Qualifications Experience

01 Electrical Engineer Max. 33 B.E./B.Tech. in Electrical Engineering or Diploma in

Electrical Engineering

3 years for B.E./B.Tech.

and 5 years for Diploma

holders

02 Dy Manager

(IT)

Max. 28 Degree in Engineering in the

field of Computer

Science/IT/Electronics

OR

MCA

--

03 Officer (ITBanking

Domain)

Min. 21

Max. 40

Graduate in any discipline. 1 year working experience

in Core Banking Solution

(Finacle) Branches in any

Bank

NOTE:

(a) The educational qualifications prescribed for the post are the minimum. Candidates

must possess these qualifications as on 13.08.2008, and must submit proof thereof if

called for interview.

(b) Work experience for post code 01 should be full-time, post-qualification and relevant

to the post and will be counted as on 13.08.2008.

4. RELAXATION OF UPPER AGE LIMIT:

(i) Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe candidates

- 5 years.

(ii) Other Backward Classes candidates

- 3 years.

(iii) Physically challenged candidates - 10 years.

(iv) Ex-service Commissioned Officers, including ECOs/SSCOs, who have rendered at least 05

years military service and have been released on completion of assignment (including

those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year from the last date for

receipt of applications) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of

misconduct or inefficiency or on account of physical disability attributable to military

service or on invalidment - 5 years.

(v) Persons domiciled in the Kashmir division of the state of Jammu & Kashmir during the

period from 01.01.1980 to 31.12.1989

- 5 years.

(vi) Children/family members of those who died in the 1984 riots - 3 years.

NOTE:

a) The relaxation in upper age limit is cumulative as per Govt of India guidelines.

b) Candidates belonging to the SC/ST/OBC/PC category must possess a caste

certificate/certificate of handicap issued by the competent authority as specified at pt no.

5. In case of candidates belonging to the OBC category, the caste certificate inter-alia

must specify that the candidate does not belong to the ‘creamy layer’ section excluded

from the benefits of the reservations for Other Backward Classes in Civil Post & Services

under Govt of India. Candidates belonging to the OBC category but falling within the

creamy layer shall not be entitled to reservation/relaxation. The OBC Certificate should

not be more than one year old as on the date of application.

c) Physically challenged candidates claiming the benefit of reservation/age relaxation must

possess a medical certificate as specified in the Persons with Disabilities Act of 1995 in

support of their disability.

d) Once an Ex-serviceman has joined a Govt job on the civil side after availing of the

benefits given to him as an Ex-serviceman for his re-employment, his ex-serviceman

status for the purpose of re-employment in Govt ceases.

e) All persons eligible for age relaxation under 4 (v) above must possess a domicile

certificate from the District Magistrate of Kashmir division within whose jurisdiction

he/she had ordinarily resided, or any other authority designated in this regard by the

Govt of Jammu & Kashmir, to the effect that the candidate had ordinarily been domiciled

in the Kashmir division of the state of Jammu & Kashmir from 1

stJanuary 1980 to 31st

December 1989.

f) All persons eligible for age relaxation under 4 (vi) above must possess a certificate from

the competent authority to the effect that their father/mother/family member died in the

1984 riots.

The above relaxations are available only if the candidate fulfils the various conditions

prescribed in the Govt of India orders and instructions in this regard.

5. COMPETENT AUTHORITY FOR THE ISSUE OF CERTIFICATE TO SC/ST/OBC/PC:

For SC/ST/OBC: District Magistrate/Additional Distt Magistrate/Collector/Deputy

Commissioner/Additional Dy Commissioner/Dy Collector/First Class Stipendary Magistrate/

Sub-Divisional Magistrate/Taluka Magistrate/Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant

Commissioner/Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency

Magistrate/Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tahsildar/Sub-Divisional Officer of the

area where the candidate and/or his/her family normally resides.

For PC: Authorised certifying authority will be a Medical Board duly constituted by the

Central/State Govt having at least 3 members consisting of Chief Medical Officer, Sub-

Divisional Medical Officer of the district and an orthopaedic surgeon/opthalmology surgeon/

ENT surgeon as the case may be.

6. SELECTION PROCEDURE:

(a) Selection will be on the basis of written test and interview. The question paper for

the written examination will be bilingual, i.e. in Hindi and English, except for the Test

of English Language.

(b) Merely satisfying the eligibility norms will not entitle a candidate to be called for

written test/interview. The Bank may call only the requisite number of candidates

after preliminary screening/short-listing with reference to the candidates’

qualifications, suitability, experience etc.

(c) The written test will be held on

05.10.2008.

(d) The date of the written examination is tentative. The exact date will be

communicated to the candidates through the call letter for the examination. The

Bank reserves the right to cancel or make any change in the date of examination, if

necessary.

(e) The written test will be scheduled at the following centres and the address of the

venue will be advised in the call letter:

(f) The Bank reserves the right to cancel any of the centres and/or add other centres,

depending on the response, administrative feasibility, etc. The Bank also reserves the

right to allot to the candidate any centre other than the one he/she has opted for.

(g) The Bank may at its discretion hold re-examination wherever necessary in respect of

a centre/venue of a candidate(s).

(h) Candidates will appear for the interview at their own expense. However, SC/ST

candidates attending the interview will be reimbursed for the travelling expenses

incurred, in terms of Govt guidelines.

7. FEE AND POSTAGE CHARGES (NON-REFUNDABLE):

(i) For candidates belonging to SC/ST/PC categories, there is no application fee except

postage charges of Rs 50/-.

(ii) For all other categories, including OBC/dependents of servicemen killed in action, the

application fee is Rs 250/- + Rs 50/- postage charges = Rs 300/-.

8. HOW TO APPLY:

The application fee may be paid in cash, separately for each post if the candidate wishes to

apply for more than one post, at any of the Bank’s Core Banking Branches (CBBs).

Before depositing the fee, the candidate must download a copy of the payment voucher

from website www.pnbindia.com

Paper Pattern of SBI PO Exam 2008

a) Tier I–Preliminary Examination: Time 2 Hrs. (combined).
Candidates will be called for an objective type examination. The objective type examination will consist of i) Reasoning Ability Test, ii) Quantitative Aptitude, iii) General Awareness/ Computer Knowledge, iv) English Language. Question paper will be in bilingual form i.e. in Hindi and English except the test of English language.

b) Tier II–Main Test: Time 3 Hrs. (combined)
This will be an Objective and Descriptive type examination. The objective type examination of 2 hours duration will consist of : i) Test of Reasoning, ii) Data Analysis and Interpretation, iii) Marketing Knowledge, iv) Test of English Language

The Descriptive type examination will be a test of English knowledge–Time 60 Minutes

c) Tier III–Group Discussion & Interview:
Qualifying candidates will be called for Group Discussion and Interview and have to secure 40% (35% for SC/ST/PWD) aggregate marks i.e. Group Discussion and Interview put together to be eligible for selection.

Candidates will have to pass both in Tier II & Tier III for final selection as given above.
Thereafter, Tier II and Tier III marks will be aggregated and arranged in the descending order and depending on the vacancies; selection will be made from the top merit ranked candidates in each category.

Results of the candidates who are finally selected is made available on the SBI website.

Website:

• http://www.sbi.co.in

SBI BANK PO GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Who was the Prime Minister of Britain when India got Independence?
a) Harold Wilson
b) Lloyd George
c) Chamberlain
d) Clement Atlee
Ans : D

2. The Acharya who established “matths” in all the four corners of India
a) Ramanuja
b) Sankara
c) Madhava
d) Vallabha

Ans : B

3. Sir C.V.Raman was the first Nobel Laureate in Physics from the Indian Sub-continent.Who was the second?
a)Dr.A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
b) Dr.S.S.Bhatnagar
c) Dr.Hargovind Khorana
d)Prof.Abdus Salam of Pakistan
Ans : D

4. Free India’s First Education Minister was
a)M.C. Chagla
b) Maulana Kalam Azad
c) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
d) N.G.Ayyangar
Ans : B

5. Who was the first Viceroy of India ?
a)Lord Clive
b)Lord Warren Hastings
c)Lord Canning
d)Lord Cornwallis
Ans : C

6. The servants of India society was founded by
a)Blavatsky & Olcott,1866
b)Gopalkrishna Gokhale,1905
c)M.G.Ranade,1867
d)Sir S.A.Khan,1920
Ans : B

7. Under whose Vice Royalty was Tipu Sultan Defeated
a)Lord Cornwallis
b)Lord Wellesley
c)Lord Hastings
d)Lord Canning
Ans : B

8. The famous”Al-Berauni”is associated in Indian history with
a)Mohd.Tughlaq
b) Mohd.Ghori
c)Mahmood of Ghazni
d)Allau-ud-din Khilji.
Ans : C

9. Battle of Buxar was fought in the year
a)1757
b)1764
c)1576
d)1565
Ans : B

10. Kalidas was the court poet of
a)Chandragupta-II
b)Chandragupta Maurya
c)Harshavardhan
d)Kharavela
Ans : A

11. Battle of _______ is associated with Prithviraj & Mohammad Ghori
a)Haldighati
b)Talikota
c)Kanwa
d)Tarain
Ans : D

12.Second Battle of Panipat was fought in the year _________ ,headed by_________
a)1526,Babur
b)1556,Humayun
c)1556,Akbar
d)1605,Jehangir.
Ans : C

13.The first round table conference was held under the vice royalty of Lord
a)Reading
b)Irwin
c)Wellingdon
d)Mountbatten
Ans : B

14. Who was the last famous Hindu King?
a)Harshavardhan
b)Samudragupta
c)Chandragupta-II
d)Ashoka
Ans : A

15. Who is known as the Indian Napolean?
a) Chandragupta I
b) Samudragupta
c) Chandragupta II
d) Skandagupta
Ans : B

16. The author of historical epithet ‘Rajtarangini” was
a)Kalhana
b) Kalidas
c) Chanakya
d) Banabhatta
Ans : A

17. The Kailashnath Temple at Ellora was built by the
a) Rashtrakutas
b) Chalukyas
c) Cholas
d) Pallavas
Ans : A

18. Alexander defeated Porus at the bank of river Jhelum. This battle is famous as the battle of
a)Wandiwash
b)Hydapses
c) Chausa
d) Khanwa
Ans : B

19. Which governor General abolished the practice of sati?
a) Lord Dalhousie
b) William Bentick
c) Lord Cornwallis
d) Lord Hastings
Ans : B

20. Lord Curzon is associated with which of the following events?
a) Hunter commission
b) Doctrine of Lapse
c) Partition of Bengal
d) Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy
Ans : C

21. Gandhiji first started his Satyagraha Movement in
a) Peitermaritzberg , South Africa
b) Sabarmati, India
c) Johhanesberg, South Africa
d) Dandi, India
Ans : C

22. The “veda” which deals with Ayurvedic system of medicine
a)Rigveda
b) Samveda
c) Atharavaveda
d) Yajurveda
Ans : C

23. The famous “Economic Drain Theory” was given by
a) Lord Lytton, 1876
b) Swami dayanand,1875
c) Dadabhai Naoroji,1876
d) Lord Northbrook, 1876.
Ans : C

24.The capital of India Was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in the Year
a) 1910
b) 1911
c) 1920
d) 1919
Ans : B

25. Who, among the following , is known for his pioneering work on medicine during the Gupta period
a) Sudraka
b) Sushruta
c) Shaunaka
d) Saumilla
Ans : B

26. Who was the founder of Indian National Congress ?
a) Dadabhai Naoroji
b) A.O. Hume
c) W.C. Banerji
d) Badrudin Tyabji
Ans : B

27. Jalianwala Bagh Tragedy occurred in which of the following year?
a)1927
b)1942
c) 1920
d) 1919
Ans : D

28. Brahmo Samaj was founded by
a)Raja Ram Mohan Roy
b) Keshab Chandra Sen
c) Swami Vivekanand
d) Swami Dayanand
Ans : A

29. The policy was Subsidiary Alliance was started by
a) Lord Cornwallis
b) Lord Welleseley
c) Lord Canning
d) Lord Hastings
Ans : B

30. The last Mughal Emperor was
a)Bahadur Shah II
b) Shah Alam II
c) Akbar II
d) Alamgir II
Ans : A

31. Sir Thomas Roe was the ambassador of James I to the court of
a)Akbar
b) Jahangir
c) Shah Jahan
d) Auranzeb
Ans : B

32.Vasco da Gama was a famous ______ traveler.
a) Danish
b) French
c) Portugese
d) Dutch
Ans : C

33. When was American Independence declared ?
a)1776
b)1756
c) 1736
d) 1746
Ans : A

34. When did Hitler become Chancellor of Germany?
a) 1939
b) 1936
c) 1933
d) 1930
Ans : C

35. The Industrial Revolution was to begin first in
a) USA
b) Japan
c) England
d) (erstwhile)USSR
Ans : C

36. Who wrote Buddha Charita?
a) Bana Bhatta
b) Ashva Ghosa
c) Kalidasa
d) Tulsidas
Ans : B

37.Where was the first factory by the Britishers set up in India in 1612?
a) Pondicherry
b) Surat
c) Cochin
d) Calcutta
Ans : B

38. The principal language of the Dravidians was

a) Kannada
b) Telugu
c) Tamil
d) Malayalam

Ans : B

39. In which year Ashoka fought the Kalinga War?
a) 58 B.C.
b) 78 B.C.
c) 599 B.C.
d) 261 B.C.
Ans : D

40. When was the Berlin Wall built?
a) 1917
b)1961
c) 1921
d) 1963
Ans : B

41. Which among the following is not the official language of the U.N.O.?
a) Spanish
b) Arabic
c) Chinese
d) Japanese
Ans : D

42. Who suggested the name “United Nations “?
a) John.F.Kennedy
b) Franklin D. Roosevelt
c) Jimmy Carter
d) Napolean Bonaparte
Ans : B

43. Which among the following is the U.N.Foundation Day?
a) 30th oct.1945
b) 24th oct.1945
c) 6th aug.1942
d) 9th aug.1942
Ans : B

44. The term of office of a judge of the International Court of Justice is ______ years.
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
Ans : D

45. The only Indian Woman who became President of the World Health Organisation so far was
a) R.K.Amrit Kaur
b) Vijaylakshmi Pandit
c)Sucheta Kriplani
d) Sarojini Naidu
Ans : A

46. Who was the first secretary general of the United Nations?
a) Kurt Waldheim of Austria
b) Dag Hammarskjoeld of Sweden
c) U. Thant of Burma
d) Trygve Lie of Norway.
Ans : D

47. The hundred sons of Dhritarashtra had one sister.What was her name?
a) Duhsala
b) Trishala
c) Kunti
d) Madri
Ans : A

48. In Indian Mythology , who was the wife of Kubera?
a) Rambha
b)Menaka
c) Urvasi
d) Lakshmi
Ans : A

49. Which country was expelled from U.N. in 1992?
a) Czechoslovakia
b) Yugoslovia
c) Iraq
d) Switzerland
Ans : B

50. Who compiled the Adi Granth?
a) Guru Nanak
b) Guru Har Rai
c) Guru Arjun Dev
d) Guru Teg Bahadur
Ans : C

Bank PO sample paper: SBI PO (PT) 2008 GK and computer knowledge exam.

1. As per the reports in the newspapers what has been the average growth of GDP during 10th plan period (2002-2007) ?

(A) 9 %

(B) 9.3 %

(C) 8 %

(D) 8.7 %

(E) 7.6 %

Answer (E)

2. Which of the following is/are not part(s) of the Union Budget 2008-09 presented in the Lok Sbha in February 2008 ?

(1) Defence allocation is increased by 10% to reach more than Rs. 1,00,000 crore.

(2) National Rural Guarantee Act is extended to all the rural districts.

(3) Debt Waiver Scheme launched to help all farmers irrespective of their land holdings.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 & 2

(D) Only 3

(E) None of these

Answer (D)

3. Which of the following States has been declared 2008 as the "Year of Education" ?

(A) Haryana

(B) Bihar

(C) Gujarat

(D) Uttar Pradesh

(E) None of these

Answer (A)

4. Who amongst the following is selected as the "Banker of the year 2007" by the Business Standard ?

(A) M.V.Kamath

(B) K.C.Chakrabarty

(C) Anil Khandelwal

(D) O.P.Bhatt

(E) None of these

Answer (D)

5. Which of the following is /are not the constituent sector(s) of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India ?

(1) Agriculture & allied activities

(2) Foreign Exchange Reserve

(3) Industry

(A) Only 1

(B) All 1,2 & 3

(C) Only 3

(D) Both 1 & 2

(E) Only 2

Answer (E)

6.What is "H5N1" a term , which was very much in news recently ?

(A) It is a category of Visa provided by the USA fOR STUDENTS.

(B) It is the name of the virus which cause Bird flu

(C) It is the code name of India's space Mission 2010.

(D) It was the name of the military operation launched by Sri Lanka against LTTE.

(E) None of these

Answer (B)

7. Which of the following State Govts. launched a Rs. 40,000 crore "Ganga Expressway Project" ?

(A) Bihar

(B) Gujarat

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) West Bengal

(E) Uttar Pradesh

Answer (E)

8. Which of the following countries is going to elects its first 47 member parliament for the first time in the history of the country ?

(A) Butan

(B) Pakistan

(C) Myanmar

(D) Nepal

(E) None of these

Answer (A)

9. "World Day for Water" was observed on which of the following days ?

(A) 22nd January

(B) 22nd February

(C) 22nd March

(D) 22nd April

(E) None of these

Answer (C)

10. sunita Williams is the recipient of which of the following awards given away recently ?

(A) Woman of the year 2007

(B) Padma Bhushan

(C) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award

(D) Pravasi India Award 2007

(E) None of these

Answer (B)

11. The Fifth National Winter Games were organized in -

(A) Jaipur

(B) Gulmarg

(C) Hyderabad

(D) Chennai

(E) Delhi

Answer (B)

12. Who amongst the following won the Men's single title of Australian Open Tennis 2008 ?

(A) Novak Djokovic

(B) Jo-Wilfried Tsonga

(C) Jonathan Erlich

(D) Andy Ram

(E) None of these

Answer (A)

13. Which of the following films won the best Film Award in 65th Golden Globe Awards ceremony ?

(A) Away from her

(B) Atonement

(C) No Country for Old Men

(D) I'm Not there

(E) None of these

Answer (B)

14. Rahul Banerjee won which of the following Natioanl Senior Champioship held in January 2008 ?

(A) Badminton

(B) Chess

(C) Archery

(D) Golf

(E) None of these

Answer (C)

15. Who amongst the following is the author of the novel "Without Dreams" ?

(A) Shahbano Bilgrami

(B) Saeed Mirza

(C) Javed Akhtar

(D) Shabana Azmi

(E) None of these

Answer (A)

16. The ------ of a system includes the programs or instructions.

(A) Hardware

(B) Icon

(C) Information

(D) Software

(E) None of these

Answer (D)

17.The copy command saves to-

(A) The Desktop

(B) The Clipboard

(C) Microsoft Word

(D) Paste

(E) None of these

Answer (B)

SBI English Language

English Language

Directions Q. 1-4 : In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. There are five parts of words after each sentence denoted by numbers (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) . Find out which pair of words can be filed up in the blanks in the sentences in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

1. It is certain that human beings ..............latent power of which they are only ...............aware.
A. possess; vaguely B. exhibit; little C. impose; clearly D. inherit; consciously E. owns; surely

2. His ...............to speak an Indian language hadn't ............ to be a handicap
A. eagemess; stopped B. desire; made C. inability; proved D. promie; halted E. knowledge; showed

3. The AIRLINE INDUSTRY is ................out its survival kit to deal with ...............losses
A. spreading; raising B. pulling; mounting C. handling; abating D. pushing; increasing E. floating; diminishing

4. Akbar, one of the ...................and ..............emperors of India who made a name for himself is acknowledged even today
A. desirous; indolent B. aspiring; slugged C. slothful; active D. simple; bold E. ambitious; presentation

Directions Q. 5-19 : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow it. Certain words/ phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Indian phrma industry is flourishing overseas, touching almost every part of the world. With low cost, speed and high quality advantage India is gearing up to become the hub for contract research and manufacturing and maintaining it is another. Canada provides tax benefits upto 46 per cent for research carried out within the country. Others like Korea and china without a large pool of scientists make-up by facilitating foreign research in every conceivable way. India does not any of this and faces many hurdles - diseases that it has been inflicted with since independence like Malaria and TB. While Indian companies have only focused on reverse engineering blockbusterdrugs from MNCs, overseas scientitsts have displayed little interest in researching, subcontinent specific diseases as there are more profits and public interest in lifestyle such as obesity which, in turn, fund their research. In the interest of Indian research industry a decision must be taken quickly on the implementation of data protection laws.

India is one of the few countries where data exclusivity provision are not prevalent. Data protection is a contentious issue, wholly debated by the Government and the industry. A pharma company wishing to market a drug controller to show that the drug is both effective and safe. The first ( originator) company that makes the application for marketing approval has to submit its data relating to the clinical trails to the drug is safe and effective will register it. Another drug company wishing to market the same drug only requires to show a bio-equivalence to the drug of the originator company. Thus, as per the prevailing laws, the regulator in India can rely on an innovator's data to approve the competitor's product. While the system in general is responsible for maintaining the necessary secrecy, it is not accountable for the same - the competitor gets an unfair advantage over the innovator even when he is intellectual property. Consequently research based pharma companies are being forced to undertake vital clinical trials abroad. Huge expenditures are incurred overseas, draining precious when this could be done at home at a fraction of the cost.

The product Patent Law protections required by the TRIPS agreement and brought about by the 2005 amendment to the Patent Act require India to protect undisclosed test data from disclosure and unfair commercial use by competitors. Effective 2005 Indian companies can no longer copy patent protected foreign drugs. Some negate the necessity to make data exclusivity a law, the MNCs want the data to be protected absolutely for a period of five years. However, in case certain drugs are not available or unaffordable should the government for the common good not be able to excercise powers to get another company to make such drugs?

5. Which of the following is a reason for India's continuing battle with common place diseases?
A. Rigid patent laws mean essential foreign drugs are not easily available in India
B. Newer, more effective treatments and drugs are unafforadable
C. Government does not adequately subsidise drugs required for treatment these diseases
D. Research and development of drugs for such diseases is taken up only by advanced countries
E. None of these

6. Which of the following is/ are TRUE in the context of the passage?

I. Countries like China prefer to outsource research to avoid exorbitant cost of research at home
II. Multi-national pharma companies are pressurising India to have product patent laws
III. The Indian phrma industry is booming

A. Only I B. Only II C. Both II & III D. Both I & II E. None of these

7. According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws?
A. To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB.
B. To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C. To prevent misuses of research to make profits by competing companies
D. To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E. None of these

8. Which of the following measures has Korea taken to be competitive in the pharma industry?
A. It offers blockbuster drugs at highly subsidised rates
B. It collaborates with foreign research firms
C. It provides speedy regulatory apporvals
D. It enacts relaxed tax laws
E. None of these

9. Which of the following is/ are India's strengths in drug discovery and research ?

I. Relaxed patent laws
II. Reverse engineering of foreign block buster drugs
III. Incentives to foreign companies researching subcontinent diseases

A. Only III B. Both I & III C. Only I D. All of these E. None of these

10. According to the author, what is the disadvantage of holding clinical trials abroad?
A. Research facilities in India are far more sophisticated
B. Authenticity of research methodology cannot be monitored
C. Delayed processing of test data
D. Higher cost resulting in the drain of financial resources
E. The laws abroad are more stringent

11. The argument against making data exclusivity a law is .......................

I. specialized knowledge will be shared II. it will unfairly favour large western pharma companies
III. it is not in the interest of the general public

A. Only I B. Both I & III C. Only III D. Both II & III E. None of these

12. What is the objective of the TRIPS Agreement?
A. To allow the Government to determine the focus of drug research conduced
B. To ensure India meets international legal requirements
C. To give developed countries an edge in pharma manufacturing
D. To ensure that compelling companies do not benefit commercially from using each other's clinical data
E. None of these

13. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
A. Costs of clinical trials and research are relatively lower in India
B. India has laws to ensure patent protection, but data exclusivity provision are not prevalent
C. China has a large number of well- qualified clinical research personnel which has made it attractive to MNCs
D. Indian pharma companies can no longer duplicate patent protected foreign drugs
E. None of these

14. The Indian pharma industry ..............................
A. is hampered by severe intellectual property rights laws
B. trials in research on health threats like obesity
C. is the largest growing one in the world
D. only has the expertise to reverse engineer drugs
E. provides quality research at low cost

Directions Q. 15-17 : Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage

15. PREVAILING
A. Popular B. Implemented C. Existing D. Persuading E. Winning

16. HURDLES
A. Bars B. Defects C. Rejections D. Protects E. Obstacles

17. INCURRED
A. Collected B. Included C. Spent D. Experienced E. Adjusted

Directions Q. 18-19 : Choose the word/ phrase which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage

18. FLOURSISHING
A. Drooping B. Declining C. Fluctuating D. Worthless E. Minimum

19. VITAL
A. Practical B. Voluntary C. Negative D. Worthless E. Minimum

Directions Q. 20-29 : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

20.A. The main advantage India has B. over other countries is C. its large human capital which
D. make it an ideal E. out-sourcing base E. No error

21.A. The judge has directed to B. the accused and the complainant C. not to interfere with
D. the witness in any manner E. No error

22.A Today most employees complain B. of suffering for the stress C. of attending to
D. srude customers all day E. No error

23. A. Since the tenant failed B. to pay his rent on time C. the landlord denied him
D. access to the premise E. No error

24. A. His industrious nature B. and calm temperament C. have endeared him
D. to his coleagues and one's superiors E. No error

25. A. After careful scrutiny of the report B. variety mistakes that had been C. made by the research
D. department were found E. No error

26. A. Since the online education system B. has been poorly designed there C. are not many institute
D. that offer this facility E. No error

27. A. The celebrities that organised B. the marathon were aiming C. to create an awareness
D. about the treatment of diabetes E. No error

28. A. Unless the new resolution is B. completely reviewed it C. will cause a great deal of
D. trouble for new employees E. No error

29. A There will be several B. new visa application centres opened C. in metros across the country
D. to easy the pressure on embassies E. No error

Directions Q. 30-39 : Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C), (D) following each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct mark (E), i.e, No correction required as the answer

30. She asked him if she can see him later to fix an appointment for personal advice
A. could see him later B. can saw him later C. could saw him later D. will see him lastly E. No correction required

31. Suresh Singh took of his coat and hung it on a nall in the wall
A. take off its coat B. look his coat over C. took his coat off D. taking his coat off E. No correction required

32. Despite his poor vision, he had an eye for women
A. Though is B. Instead of his C. Although his D. Inspite his E. No correction required

33. It is a natural urge to retain the balance of advantage in his own favour
A. for his own favour B. in his own favours C. from one's own favour D. in one's own favour E. No correction required

34. The news of his father's death came as a bolt to the blue
A. as if bolt from the sky B. as a bolt from the blue C. across a bolt from the blue
D. to a bolt in the blue E. No correction required

35. Long ago, there had no such thing as money and people exchanged the things that they wanted
A. was no such thing B. have not such things C. had been not things like
D. was no such things E. No correction required

36. While playing cricket, I sprained my foot
A. Since playing B. Despite played C. From playing D. When played E. No correction required

37. Mohanlal looking over himself into the mirror of the waiting room at the railway station
A. was looked at himself in B. looked into himself from C. looked at himself in
D. looks at oneself in E. No correction required

38. The chilly wind hits me over the face and the rain pounded me
A. hit me on face B. hit me in the face C. has hit me in the face D. hit me into my face E. No correction required

39. I shall make you realise your mistake
A. make you to realise B. make you in realising C. made you realise D. make you realised E. No correction required

Directions Q.40-49 : In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed after the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case

One of the most brutal features of gender inequality takes the form of physical violence against women. The...40...of such violence is remarkably high, not only in poorer and less developed economies but also in wealthy and modern societies. Indeed the .....41 ...of battering women even in the richest and most developed economies is ....42...high. Turning to India, it must be....43...first that the frequency of assaults on women is high in the country. To that...44....general recognition has to be added the special role of violence connected with particular...45...features, such as dowry and economic settlements. Even though the numbers involved in violent deaths are....46...by the larger numbers that...47...from....48...of healthcare, the crude and brutal nature of this form of gender inequality makes it a particularly severe....49..of the deprivation of women.

40. A. exectations B. counting C. incidence D. acceptance E. responses

41. A. frequency B. occurrence C. event D. chance E. blocking

42. A. relatively B. clearly C. surely D. undoubtedly E. astonishingly

43. A. accomplished B. acknowledged C. cleared D. understand E. assured

44. A.anxiety B. terrible C. surprise D. power E. form

45. A. national B. visible C. social D. category E. personal

46. A. fewer B. outshine C. lean D. dwarfed E. horrible

47. A. perish B. develop C. spoil D. incline E. direct

48. A. omissions B. attention C. care D. effort E. neglect

49. A. remark B. indication C. happening D. manifestation E. rise

STATE BANK OF INDIA Quantitative Aptitude

Directions Q.1-4 : In the following questions what will come in place of question mark (?) ?

1. 25 + 125 *2 =?
A. 375 B. 30 C. 6250 D. 152 E. None of these

2. 150% of 15 + 75% of 75 = ?
A. 78.75 B. 75.75 C. 281.25 D. 135 E. None of these

3. (((2)⁴ )^1/2 )^? = 256
A. 8 B. 6 C. 4 D. 1 E. None of these

4. -20*40*1/5/ 30/25 = ?
A. -20/3 B. 400/3 C. -400/9 D. -192 E. None of these

Directions Q. 5-9 : In the following series what will come in place of the question mark (?) ?

5. 12 22 69 272 1365 ?
A. 8196 B. 8184 C. 8195 D. 6830 E. None of these

6. 1 ? 27 64 125
A. 14 B. 4 C. 9 D. 8 E. None of these

7. 104 153 189 214 ?
A. 239 B. 225 C. 264 D. 235 E. None of these

8. 15 17 32 49 81 130 ?
A. 179 B. 211 C. 194 D. 226 E.None of these

9. 15 17 21 29 45 77 ?
A. 109 B. 125 C. 141 D. 173 E. None of these

Directions Q 10-14 : From the following different committees are to be made as per the requirements given in each question. In how many different ways can it be done ?

10 men and 8 women out of which 5 men are teachers, 3 men are doctors and 2 are teachers, 2 doctors, 2 researchers and 1 social worker

10. A committee of 5 in which 3 men and 2 women are there
A. 3360 B. 8568 C. 4284 D. 1680 E. None of these

11. A committee of 4 in which at least 2 women are there.
A. 1260 B. 1820 C. 3060 D. 1890 E. None of these

12. A committee of 5 in which 2 men teachers, 2 women teachers and 1 doctor are there
A. 75 B. 150 C. 214 D. 20 E. None of these

13. A committee of 7
A. 31824 B. 1200 C. 9600 D. 15912 E. None of these

14.A committee of 3 in which there is no teacher and no doctor
A. 100 B. 120 C. 10 D. 12 E. None of these

Directions Q. 15-19 : Study the following table to answer the given questions

Number of Books of different prices bought in different months

Month Price	January	March	May	July	September	November
More than Rs. 5000	50	106	2	30	25	75
Rs. 4000-.5000	105	1000	40	105	400	375
Rs. 3000-3999	70	100	80	115	200	240
Rs. 2000- 2999	300	500	100	216	135	300
Rs. 1000-1999	140	370	200	225	175	470
Rs. 500-999	200	700	15	400	75	530
Less than Rs. 500	65	135	111	188	25	65

15. In which month was maximum number of books bought?
A. March B. November C. July D. September E. None of these

16. For which price range was maximum number of books bought for the given months together?
A. Rs. 500-999 B. Rs. 2000-2999 C. 1000-1999 D. 3000-3999 E. None of these

17. The books of price range Rs. 1000-1999 bought in January is what per cent of that of May?
A. 30 B. 70 C. 142.86 D. 60 E. None of these

18. How much is the difference in the number of books bought in September and November ?
A. 244 B. 776 C. 1020 D. 1310 E. None of these

19. What is the respective ration of books of Rs. 4000-5000 bought in January to that of March?
A. 1 : 10 B. 15 : 100 C. 930 : 2911 D. 21 : 200 E. None of these

STATE BANK OF INDIA Reasoning

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SOUTHERN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

2. If the letters the word COMPARE are rearranged in such that first the vowels within the word are rearranged alphabetically followed by the consonants arranged alphabetically, which of following will be the fifth letter from the right end after the rearrangement?
A. O B. E. C. M. D. P E. None of these

3. If every alternate letter in the word SOLITARY starting from the first letter is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the third letter from the right end after the substitution ?
A. B B. S C. Z D. K E. None of these

4. The letters in the word DOSE are changed in such a way that each vowel is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet. How many meaningful words can be formed with the new set of letters using each letter only once in each word?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

5. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 53146827 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

6. In a certain code CLIMATE is written as BUFLJMD. How is ORDERLY written in that code?
A. SMZDESP B. ZMSDPSE C. ZMSDESP D. ZMSFESP E. None of these

7. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in number 84329517 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 9 E. None of these

8. In a certain code, TOLD is written as 5132 and DEAR is written as 2648. How is LATE written in that code?
A. 3652 B. 3246 C. 3856 D. 3456 E. None of these

9. In a certain code BEAN is written as ABNE and SALE is written as LSEA. How is NEWS written in that code?
A. WNES B. WNSE C. SNWE D. SNEW E. None of these

10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?
A. Coal B. Aluminium C. Plastic D. Iron E. Wood

Directions Q. 11-13 : Following questions are based on the information given below:

I.. 'P * Q' means 'P is mother of Q' II. 'P / Q' means 'P is sister of Q'
III. 'P + Q' means 'P is brother of Q' IV. 'P - Q' means 'P is father of Q'

11. Which of the following means 'K is son of R'?
A. R * K B. R - K C. K + T * R D. R - J / K + M E. None of these

12. Which of the following means 'M is paternal uncle of T' ?
A. M + J - T B. M + J * T C. M / J - T D. M + J + T E. None of these

13. Which of the following means 'D is cousin of W' ?
A. D / M + W B. D + M / W C. D * T + W D. D - T / N * W E. None of these

Directions Q. 14-16 : Following questions are based on the five three digits numbers given below:

518 725 849 387 634

14. If the positions of the first and the third digits in each of the numbers are inter changed, which of the following will be the lowest number after the rearrangement?
A. 518 B. 725 C. 849 D. 387 E. 634

15. If the positions of the first and the second digits in each of the numbers are inter changed, which of the following will be the third from the top, when they are arranged in descending order after the rearrangement?
A. 518 B. 725 C. 849 D. 387 E. 634

16. If the positions of the second and the third digits in each number are inter changed, which of the following will be the difference between the highest and the lowest number after the rearrangement?
A. 506 B. 526 C. 416 D. 516 E. None of these

Directions Q. 17-20 : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, R, S, T, V and J are sitting around a circle facing at the center. S is not an immediate neighbour of V. S is second to the right of T who is second to the right of Q. R is third to the right of J and second to the left of P.

17. Who is the immediate right of Q?
A. S B. R C. V D. Data inadequate E. None of these

18. What is J's position with respect to P?
A. Third to the right B. Second to the left C. Second to the right D. Data inadequate E. None of these

19. How many of them are between Q and S?
A. 2 only B. 3 only C. 4 only D. 2 or 3 only E. None of these

20. Who among the following is sitting between V and R?
A. Q B. J C. T D. S E. None of these

Directions Q. 21-27 : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

M J % 4 T E I 9 # P A $ Q 3 8 N 5 U 7 W B @ D F 1 Z 6 H

21. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

22. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

23. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the sixth to the right of the thirteenth from the right end?
A. B B. 9 C. D D. I E. None of these

24. If all the numbers are removed from the above arrangements, which of the following will be the fourth to the left of the twentieth from the left end?
A. H B. 4 C. B D. H E. None of these

25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. I 9 E B. 7 W 5 C. 1 D D. Q A 3 E. E K 4

26. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?

J 4 E I # A Q 8 5 7 @ ?

A. F 1 6 B. D Z C. F 6 D. F 1 Z E. None of these

27. Which of the following is exactly midway between K and W in the above arrangement ?
A. $ B. 3 C. 8 D. A E. None of these

Directions Q. 28-33 : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

28. Statements :
All halls are tyres
Some tyres are wheels
All wheels are cars

Conclusions :
I. Some cars are wheels II. Some cars are tyres III. Some wheels are halls
A. None follow B. Only I follow C. Only I and II follow D. Only III follows E. Only II and III follow

29. Statements :
Some blades are hammers
Some hammers are knives
Some knives are axes

Conclusions :
I Some axes are hammers II. Some knives are blades III. Some axes are blades
A. None follows B. Only I follows C. Only II follows D. Only III follows E. None of these

30. Statements :
All dolls are windows
All bottles are windows
All cars are bottles

Conclusions :
I All cars are windows II Some cars are dolls III. Some windows are cars
A. Only I and II follow B. Only II and III follow C. Only I and III follow D. All follow E. None of these

31. Statements :
Some benches are beads
All beads are flowers
No tree is flower

Conclusions :
I. Some trees are benches II. Some trees are beads III. No tree is bead
A. Only I follows B. Only either I or II follows C. Only either I or II follows D. Only III follows E. None of these

32. Statements :
All breads are tables
Some tables are brushes
All brushes are paints

Conclusions :
I. Some paints are breads II. Some brushes are breads III. Some paints are tables
A. None follows B. Only II follows C. Only III follows D. Only I and II follow E. Only II and III follow

33. Statements :
Some pictures are frames
Some frames are idols
All idols are curtains

Conclusions :
I. Some curtains are pictures II. Some curtains are frames III. Some idols are frames
A. Only I and II follow B. Only II and III follow C. Only I and III follow D. All follow E. None of these

Directions Q.34-38 : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

A. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in the Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
B. If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
D. If the data given in both the Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
E. If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

34. Who among M, N, P, T and R is the youngest?
I. N and T are younger than P. II M is older than R and P
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

35. How many children are there in the row?
I. Manoj is twelth from the left end and fourth to the left of Hari in that row
II. Hari is eigth from the right end of that
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

36. How is 'red' written in a code language?
I. 'red and blue' is written as 'ho po da' in that code language II. 'spread red carpet' is written as 'na da ka' in that code language
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

37. Village R is towards which directions of village M?
I. Village M is to the West of Village T which is to the South of Village R
II. Village M is to the South of Village B which is to the West of village R
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

38. How many sisters does D have?
I. D's mother has four children II. K and T are brothers of E
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions Q. 39-43 : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement and given answer

A. if only Assumptions I is implicit B. if only Assumption II is implicit C. if either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit
D. if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit E. if both Assumption I and II are implicit

39. Statements :
The Government has decided to provide monetary relief to the farmers in the drought his areas

Assumptions :
I. The farmers of the affected areas may accept the Government relief
II. The Government machinery may be able to reach the affected farmers to provide relief
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

40. Statements :
All the students of a school were instructed by the Principal to reach school at least 15 minutes before the stipulated time for the coming month

Assumptions :
I. The parents of the students of the school may protest against the Principal's instructions
II. The parents may request the Principal to withdraw the instruction
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

41. Statements :
Railway authority has started internet booking facility of long distance trains and also deliver the tickets at the door-step through courier service at a little extra cost

Assumptions :
I. Many customers may now book their tickets through internet resulting into less crowd at ticket booking offices.}
II. Most of the customers may still buy their railway tickets at the booking counters
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

42. Statements :
" If you have obtained 75% or more marks in X Std. examination, your admission to our coaching class for XII Std. is guaranteed". - An advertisement

Assumptions :
I. Bright students do not generally opt for attending coaching classes
II. The coaching class has adequate capacity to accommodate all such students
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

43. Statements :
The municipal corporation has given permission for holding funfairs in the local football ground during the holiday season

Assumptions:
I. The local residents may protest against the Corporation's decision
II. Many people may not participate in the unfair
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions Q. 44-48: Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity and mark answer:

A. if the inference is definitely true i.e, it properly follows from the statement of facts given
B. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of facts given
C. if the data are inadequate, i.e, from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
D. if the interference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
E. if the inference is definitely false, i.e, it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts

The jeweller-next-door may have reasons to worry, thanks to the organised retail and branded goods hitting the right cord from Indian consumers. The recent changes in lifestyle goods industry and the diamonds industry threatens to impact the family jeweller segment, which currently controls 97% of India's fragmented jewellery retail market. A study suggests that as India's jewellery market matures, it is expected to get more organised and the share of family jeweller is expected to come down. The family jeweller segment is he largest segment of the market and hence, most likely to be impacted by these changes. Family jewellers will have to bring in new practices and range of designs and customisation of jewellery would differentiate the players. Currently, organised retailers are enlarging the pie but the traditional players are not feeling the impact yet

44. Share of business of the small time jewellers will reduce substantially in the near future
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

45. Family jewellers have never customised their designs in the past.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

46. Big retail companies have the capability to bring in more competition in the jewellery market
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

47. Family jewellers at present control about two-third share of the entire jewellery market
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

48. There is a perceptible change in the choices of the customers in recent times with regard to lifestyle products
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions Q.49-53 : Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements and mark answer:

A. if Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
B. if Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect
C. if both the Statements I and II are independent causes
D. if both the Statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E. if both the Statements I and II are effects of some common cause

49. I. The prices of petroleum products dropped marginally last week
II. The State Government reduced the tax on petroleum products last week
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

50. I. Majority of the citizens in the locality belong to higher income group.
II. The sales in the local super market are comparatively much higher than in other localities
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

51.I. A major fire destroyed part of the oil refinery owned by a private company.
II. Government has decided to increase the supply to retailers from the public sector refineries
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

52. I. The Government medical college has decided to increase the number of seats in undergraduate course from the next academic session
II. The Government has decided to withdraw its grant from all the Government medical colleges from the next academic session'
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

53. I. Every year large number of people spend their vacation in various tourist destinations within the country
II. Every year large number of people spend their vacations in various tourist destinations outside the country
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)