SBI Customer Relationship Executives (PB) Recruitment

Recruitment of Customer Relationship Executives (PB) ^{(Apply Online)}

Online applications are invited from eligible Indian citizens for appointment as Customer Relationship Executives (PB) on contract basis for 2 years in SBI, SBBJ, SBH & SBT.State Bank of India (SBI), State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur (SBBJ), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) & State Bank of Travancore (SBT) wish to recruit bright, relationship building and energetic Customer Relationship Executives (CRE-PB) having flair and experience for marketing banking products to their Personal Banking Segment Customers.

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Clerk Recruitment-State Bank(SBI)2008

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SBI English Language

English Language

Directions Q. 1-4 : In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. There are five parts of words after each sentence denoted by numbers (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) . Find out which pair of words can be filed up in the blanks in the sentences in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

1. It is certain that human beings ..............latent power of which they are only ...............aware.
A. possess; vaguely B. exhibit; little C. impose; clearly D. inherit; consciously E. owns; surely

2. His ...............to speak an Indian language hadn't ............ to be a handicap
A. eagemess; stopped B. desire; made C. inability; proved D. promie; halted E. knowledge; showed

3. The AIRLINE INDUSTRY is ................out its survival kit to deal with ...............losses
A. spreading; raising B. pulling; mounting C. handling; abating D. pushing; increasing E. floating; diminishing

4. Akbar, one of the ...................and ..............emperors of India who made a name for himself is acknowledged even today
A. desirous; indolent B. aspiring; slugged C. slothful; active D. simple; bold E. ambitious; presentation

Directions Q. 5-19 : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow it. Certain words/ phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Indian phrma industry is flourishing overseas, touching almost every part of the world. With low cost, speed and high quality advantage India is gearing up to become the hub for contract research and manufacturing and maintaining it is another. Canada provides tax benefits upto 46 per cent for research carried out within the country. Others like Korea and china without a large pool of scientists make-up by facilitating foreign research in every conceivable way. India does not any of this and faces many hurdles - diseases that it has been inflicted with since independence like Malaria and TB. While Indian companies have only focused on reverse engineering blockbusterdrugs from MNCs, overseas scientitsts have displayed little interest in researching, subcontinent specific diseases as there are more profits and public interest in lifestyle such as obesity which, in turn, fund their research. In the interest of Indian research industry a decision must be taken quickly on the implementation of data protection laws.

India is one of the few countries where data exclusivity provision are not prevalent. Data protection is a contentious issue, wholly debated by the Government and the industry. A pharma company wishing to market a drug controller to show that the drug is both effective and safe. The first ( originator) company that makes the application for marketing approval has to submit its data relating to the clinical trails to the drug is safe and effective will register it. Another drug company wishing to market the same drug only requires to show a bio-equivalence to the drug of the originator company. Thus, as per the prevailing laws, the regulator in India can rely on an innovator's data to approve the competitor's product. While the system in general is responsible for maintaining the necessary secrecy, it is not accountable for the same - the competitor gets an unfair advantage over the innovator even when he is intellectual property. Consequently research based pharma companies are being forced to undertake vital clinical trials abroad. Huge expenditures are incurred overseas, draining precious when this could be done at home at a fraction of the cost.

The product Patent Law protections required by the TRIPS agreement and brought about by the 2005 amendment to the Patent Act require India to protect undisclosed test data from disclosure and unfair commercial use by competitors. Effective 2005 Indian companies can no longer copy patent protected foreign drugs. Some negate the necessity to make data exclusivity a law, the MNCs want the data to be protected absolutely for a period of five years. However, in case certain drugs are not available or unaffordable should the government for the common good not be able to excercise powers to get another company to make such drugs?

5. Which of the following is a reason for India's continuing battle with common place diseases?
A. Rigid patent laws mean essential foreign drugs are not easily available in India
B. Newer, more effective treatments and drugs are unafforadable
C. Government does not adequately subsidise drugs required for treatment these diseases
D. Research and development of drugs for such diseases is taken up only by advanced countries
E. None of these

6. Which of the following is/ are TRUE in the context of the passage?

I. Countries like China prefer to outsource research to avoid exorbitant cost of research at home
II. Multi-national pharma companies are pressurising India to have product patent laws
III. The Indian phrma industry is booming

A. Only I B. Only II C. Both II & III D. Both I & II E. None of these

7. According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws?
A. To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB.
B. To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C. To prevent misuses of research to make profits by competing companies
D. To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E. None of these

8. Which of the following measures has Korea taken to be competitive in the pharma industry?
A. It offers blockbuster drugs at highly subsidised rates
B. It collaborates with foreign research firms
C. It provides speedy regulatory apporvals
D. It enacts relaxed tax laws
E. None of these

9. Which of the following is/ are India's strengths in drug discovery and research ?

I. Relaxed patent laws
II. Reverse engineering of foreign block buster drugs
III. Incentives to foreign companies researching subcontinent diseases

A. Only III B. Both I & III C. Only I D. All of these E. None of these

10. According to the author, what is the disadvantage of holding clinical trials abroad?
A. Research facilities in India are far more sophisticated
B. Authenticity of research methodology cannot be monitored
C. Delayed processing of test data
D. Higher cost resulting in the drain of financial resources
E. The laws abroad are more stringent

11. The argument against making data exclusivity a law is .......................

I. specialized knowledge will be shared II. it will unfairly favour large western pharma companies
III. it is not in the interest of the general public

A. Only I B. Both I & III C. Only III D. Both II & III E. None of these

12. What is the objective of the TRIPS Agreement?
A. To allow the Government to determine the focus of drug research conduced
B. To ensure India meets international legal requirements
C. To give developed countries an edge in pharma manufacturing
D. To ensure that compelling companies do not benefit commercially from using each other's clinical data
E. None of these

13. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
A. Costs of clinical trials and research are relatively lower in India
B. India has laws to ensure patent protection, but data exclusivity provision are not prevalent
C. China has a large number of well- qualified clinical research personnel which has made it attractive to MNCs
D. Indian pharma companies can no longer duplicate patent protected foreign drugs
E. None of these

14. The Indian pharma industry ..............................
A. is hampered by severe intellectual property rights laws
B. trials in research on health threats like obesity
C. is the largest growing one in the world
D. only has the expertise to reverse engineer drugs
E. provides quality research at low cost

Directions Q. 15-17 : Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage

15. PREVAILING
A. Popular B. Implemented C. Existing D. Persuading E. Winning

16. HURDLES
A. Bars B. Defects C. Rejections D. Protects E. Obstacles

17. INCURRED
A. Collected B. Included C. Spent D. Experienced E. Adjusted

Directions Q. 18-19 : Choose the word/ phrase which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage

18. FLOURSISHING
A. Drooping B. Declining C. Fluctuating D. Worthless E. Minimum

19. VITAL
A. Practical B. Voluntary C. Negative D. Worthless E. Minimum

Directions Q. 20-29 : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

20.A. The main advantage India has B. over other countries is C. its large human capital which
D. make it an ideal E. out-sourcing base E. No error

21.A. The judge has directed to B. the accused and the complainant C. not to interfere with
D. the witness in any manner E. No error

22.A Today most employees complain B. of suffering for the stress C. of attending to
D. srude customers all day E. No error

23. A. Since the tenant failed B. to pay his rent on time C. the landlord denied him
D. access to the premise E. No error

24. A. His industrious nature B. and calm temperament C. have endeared him
D. to his coleagues and one's superiors E. No error

25. A. After careful scrutiny of the report B. variety mistakes that had been C. made by the research
D. department were found E. No error

26. A. Since the online education system B. has been poorly designed there C. are not many institute
D. that offer this facility E. No error

27. A. The celebrities that organised B. the marathon were aiming C. to create an awareness
D. about the treatment of diabetes E. No error

28. A. Unless the new resolution is B. completely reviewed it C. will cause a great deal of
D. trouble for new employees E. No error

29. A There will be several B. new visa application centres opened C. in metros across the country
D. to easy the pressure on embassies E. No error

Directions Q. 30-39 : Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C), (D) following each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct mark (E), i.e, No correction required as the answer

30. She asked him if she can see him later to fix an appointment for personal advice
A. could see him later B. can saw him later C. could saw him later D. will see him lastly E. No correction required

31. Suresh Singh took of his coat and hung it on a nall in the wall
A. take off its coat B. look his coat over C. took his coat off D. taking his coat off E. No correction required

32. Despite his poor vision, he had an eye for women
A. Though is B. Instead of his C. Although his D. Inspite his E. No correction required

33. It is a natural urge to retain the balance of advantage in his own favour
A. for his own favour B. in his own favours C. from one's own favour D. in one's own favour E. No correction required

34. The news of his father's death came as a bolt to the blue
A. as if bolt from the sky B. as a bolt from the blue C. across a bolt from the blue
D. to a bolt in the blue E. No correction required

35. Long ago, there had no such thing as money and people exchanged the things that they wanted
A. was no such thing B. have not such things C. had been not things like
D. was no such things E. No correction required

36. While playing cricket, I sprained my foot
A. Since playing B. Despite played C. From playing D. When played E. No correction required

37. Mohanlal looking over himself into the mirror of the waiting room at the railway station
A. was looked at himself in B. looked into himself from C. looked at himself in
D. looks at oneself in E. No correction required

38. The chilly wind hits me over the face and the rain pounded me
A. hit me on face B. hit me in the face C. has hit me in the face D. hit me into my face E. No correction required

39. I shall make you realise your mistake
A. make you to realise B. make you in realising C. made you realise D. make you realised E. No correction required

Directions Q.40-49 : In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed after the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case

One of the most brutal features of gender inequality takes the form of physical violence against women. The...40...of such violence is remarkably high, not only in poorer and less developed economies but also in wealthy and modern societies. Indeed the .....41 ...of battering women even in the richest and most developed economies is ....42...high. Turning to India, it must be....43...first that the frequency of assaults on women is high in the country. To that...44....general recognition has to be added the special role of violence connected with particular...45...features, such as dowry and economic settlements. Even though the numbers involved in violent deaths are....46...by the larger numbers that...47...from....48...of healthcare, the crude and brutal nature of this form of gender inequality makes it a particularly severe....49..of the deprivation of women.

40. A. exectations B. counting C. incidence D. acceptance E. responses

41. A. frequency B. occurrence C. event D. chance E. blocking

42. A. relatively B. clearly C. surely D. undoubtedly E. astonishingly

43. A. accomplished B. acknowledged C. cleared D. understand E. assured

44. A.anxiety B. terrible C. surprise D. power E. form

45. A. national B. visible C. social D. category E. personal

46. A. fewer B. outshine C. lean D. dwarfed E. horrible

47. A. perish B. develop C. spoil D. incline E. direct

48. A. omissions B. attention C. care D. effort E. neglect

49. A. remark B. indication C. happening D. manifestation E. rise

STATE BANK OF INDIA Quantitative Aptitude

Directions Q.1-4 : In the following questions what will come in place of question mark (?) ?

1. 25 + 125 *2 =?
A. 375 B. 30 C. 6250 D. 152 E. None of these

2. 150% of 15 + 75% of 75 = ?
A. 78.75 B. 75.75 C. 281.25 D. 135 E. None of these

3. (((2)⁴ )^1/2 )^? = 256
A. 8 B. 6 C. 4 D. 1 E. None of these

4. -20*40*1/5/ 30/25 = ?
A. -20/3 B. 400/3 C. -400/9 D. -192 E. None of these

Directions Q. 5-9 : In the following series what will come in place of the question mark (?) ?

5. 12 22 69 272 1365 ?
A. 8196 B. 8184 C. 8195 D. 6830 E. None of these

6. 1 ? 27 64 125
A. 14 B. 4 C. 9 D. 8 E. None of these

7. 104 153 189 214 ?
A. 239 B. 225 C. 264 D. 235 E. None of these

8. 15 17 32 49 81 130 ?
A. 179 B. 211 C. 194 D. 226 E.None of these

9. 15 17 21 29 45 77 ?
A. 109 B. 125 C. 141 D. 173 E. None of these

Directions Q 10-14 : From the following different committees are to be made as per the requirements given in each question. In how many different ways can it be done ?

10 men and 8 women out of which 5 men are teachers, 3 men are doctors and 2 are teachers, 2 doctors, 2 researchers and 1 social worker

10. A committee of 5 in which 3 men and 2 women are there
A. 3360 B. 8568 C. 4284 D. 1680 E. None of these

11. A committee of 4 in which at least 2 women are there.
A. 1260 B. 1820 C. 3060 D. 1890 E. None of these

12. A committee of 5 in which 2 men teachers, 2 women teachers and 1 doctor are there
A. 75 B. 150 C. 214 D. 20 E. None of these

13. A committee of 7
A. 31824 B. 1200 C. 9600 D. 15912 E. None of these

14.A committee of 3 in which there is no teacher and no doctor
A. 100 B. 120 C. 10 D. 12 E. None of these

Directions Q. 15-19 : Study the following table to answer the given questions

Number of Books of different prices bought in different months

Month Price	January	March	May	July	September	November
More than Rs. 5000	50	106	2	30	25	75
Rs. 4000-.5000	105	1000	40	105	400	375
Rs. 3000-3999	70	100	80	115	200	240
Rs. 2000- 2999	300	500	100	216	135	300
Rs. 1000-1999	140	370	200	225	175	470
Rs. 500-999	200	700	15	400	75	530
Less than Rs. 500	65	135	111	188	25	65

15. In which month was maximum number of books bought?
A. March B. November C. July D. September E. None of these

16. For which price range was maximum number of books bought for the given months together?
A. Rs. 500-999 B. Rs. 2000-2999 C. 1000-1999 D. 3000-3999 E. None of these

17. The books of price range Rs. 1000-1999 bought in January is what per cent of that of May?
A. 30 B. 70 C. 142.86 D. 60 E. None of these

18. How much is the difference in the number of books bought in September and November ?
A. 244 B. 776 C. 1020 D. 1310 E. None of these

19. What is the respective ration of books of Rs. 4000-5000 bought in January to that of March?
A. 1 : 10 B. 15 : 100 C. 930 : 2911 D. 21 : 200 E. None of these

STATE BANK OF INDIA Reasoning

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SOUTHERN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

2. If the letters the word COMPARE are rearranged in such that first the vowels within the word are rearranged alphabetically followed by the consonants arranged alphabetically, which of following will be the fifth letter from the right end after the rearrangement?
A. O B. E. C. M. D. P E. None of these

3. If every alternate letter in the word SOLITARY starting from the first letter is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the third letter from the right end after the substitution ?
A. B B. S C. Z D. K E. None of these

4. The letters in the word DOSE are changed in such a way that each vowel is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet. How many meaningful words can be formed with the new set of letters using each letter only once in each word?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

5. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 53146827 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

6. In a certain code CLIMATE is written as BUFLJMD. How is ORDERLY written in that code?
A. SMZDESP B. ZMSDPSE C. ZMSDESP D. ZMSFESP E. None of these

7. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in number 84329517 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 9 E. None of these

8. In a certain code, TOLD is written as 5132 and DEAR is written as 2648. How is LATE written in that code?
A. 3652 B. 3246 C. 3856 D. 3456 E. None of these

9. In a certain code BEAN is written as ABNE and SALE is written as LSEA. How is NEWS written in that code?
A. WNES B. WNSE C. SNWE D. SNEW E. None of these

10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?
A. Coal B. Aluminium C. Plastic D. Iron E. Wood

Directions Q. 11-13 : Following questions are based on the information given below:

I.. 'P * Q' means 'P is mother of Q' II. 'P / Q' means 'P is sister of Q'
III. 'P + Q' means 'P is brother of Q' IV. 'P - Q' means 'P is father of Q'

11. Which of the following means 'K is son of R'?
A. R * K B. R - K C. K + T * R D. R - J / K + M E. None of these

12. Which of the following means 'M is paternal uncle of T' ?
A. M + J - T B. M + J * T C. M / J - T D. M + J + T E. None of these

13. Which of the following means 'D is cousin of W' ?
A. D / M + W B. D + M / W C. D * T + W D. D - T / N * W E. None of these

Directions Q. 14-16 : Following questions are based on the five three digits numbers given below:

518 725 849 387 634

14. If the positions of the first and the third digits in each of the numbers are inter changed, which of the following will be the lowest number after the rearrangement?
A. 518 B. 725 C. 849 D. 387 E. 634

15. If the positions of the first and the second digits in each of the numbers are inter changed, which of the following will be the third from the top, when they are arranged in descending order after the rearrangement?
A. 518 B. 725 C. 849 D. 387 E. 634

16. If the positions of the second and the third digits in each number are inter changed, which of the following will be the difference between the highest and the lowest number after the rearrangement?
A. 506 B. 526 C. 416 D. 516 E. None of these

Directions Q. 17-20 : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, R, S, T, V and J are sitting around a circle facing at the center. S is not an immediate neighbour of V. S is second to the right of T who is second to the right of Q. R is third to the right of J and second to the left of P.

17. Who is the immediate right of Q?
A. S B. R C. V D. Data inadequate E. None of these

18. What is J's position with respect to P?
A. Third to the right B. Second to the left C. Second to the right D. Data inadequate E. None of these

19. How many of them are between Q and S?
A. 2 only B. 3 only C. 4 only D. 2 or 3 only E. None of these

20. Who among the following is sitting between V and R?
A. Q B. J C. T D. S E. None of these

Directions Q. 21-27 : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

M J % 4 T E I 9 # P A $ Q 3 8 N 5 U 7 W B @ D F 1 Z 6 H

21. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

22. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

23. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the sixth to the right of the thirteenth from the right end?
A. B B. 9 C. D D. I E. None of these

24. If all the numbers are removed from the above arrangements, which of the following will be the fourth to the left of the twentieth from the left end?
A. H B. 4 C. B D. H E. None of these

25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. I 9 E B. 7 W 5 C. 1 D D. Q A 3 E. E K 4

26. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?

J 4 E I # A Q 8 5 7 @ ?

A. F 1 6 B. D Z C. F 6 D. F 1 Z E. None of these

27. Which of the following is exactly midway between K and W in the above arrangement ?
A. $ B. 3 C. 8 D. A E. None of these

Directions Q. 28-33 : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

28. Statements :
All halls are tyres
Some tyres are wheels
All wheels are cars

Conclusions :
I. Some cars are wheels II. Some cars are tyres III. Some wheels are halls
A. None follow B. Only I follow C. Only I and II follow D. Only III follows E. Only II and III follow

29. Statements :
Some blades are hammers
Some hammers are knives
Some knives are axes

Conclusions :
I Some axes are hammers II. Some knives are blades III. Some axes are blades
A. None follows B. Only I follows C. Only II follows D. Only III follows E. None of these

30. Statements :
All dolls are windows
All bottles are windows
All cars are bottles

Conclusions :
I All cars are windows II Some cars are dolls III. Some windows are cars
A. Only I and II follow B. Only II and III follow C. Only I and III follow D. All follow E. None of these

31. Statements :
Some benches are beads
All beads are flowers
No tree is flower

Conclusions :
I. Some trees are benches II. Some trees are beads III. No tree is bead
A. Only I follows B. Only either I or II follows C. Only either I or II follows D. Only III follows E. None of these

32. Statements :
All breads are tables
Some tables are brushes
All brushes are paints

Conclusions :
I. Some paints are breads II. Some brushes are breads III. Some paints are tables
A. None follows B. Only II follows C. Only III follows D. Only I and II follow E. Only II and III follow

33. Statements :
Some pictures are frames
Some frames are idols
All idols are curtains

Conclusions :
I. Some curtains are pictures II. Some curtains are frames III. Some idols are frames
A. Only I and II follow B. Only II and III follow C. Only I and III follow D. All follow E. None of these

Directions Q.34-38 : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

A. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in the Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
B. If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
D. If the data given in both the Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
E. If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

34. Who among M, N, P, T and R is the youngest?
I. N and T are younger than P. II M is older than R and P
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

35. How many children are there in the row?
I. Manoj is twelth from the left end and fourth to the left of Hari in that row
II. Hari is eigth from the right end of that
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

36. How is 'red' written in a code language?
I. 'red and blue' is written as 'ho po da' in that code language II. 'spread red carpet' is written as 'na da ka' in that code language
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

37. Village R is towards which directions of village M?
I. Village M is to the West of Village T which is to the South of Village R
II. Village M is to the South of Village B which is to the West of village R
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

38. How many sisters does D have?
I. D's mother has four children II. K and T are brothers of E
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions Q. 39-43 : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement and given answer

A. if only Assumptions I is implicit B. if only Assumption II is implicit C. if either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit
D. if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit E. if both Assumption I and II are implicit

39. Statements :
The Government has decided to provide monetary relief to the farmers in the drought his areas

Assumptions :
I. The farmers of the affected areas may accept the Government relief
II. The Government machinery may be able to reach the affected farmers to provide relief
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

40. Statements :
All the students of a school were instructed by the Principal to reach school at least 15 minutes before the stipulated time for the coming month

Assumptions :
I. The parents of the students of the school may protest against the Principal's instructions
II. The parents may request the Principal to withdraw the instruction
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

41. Statements :
Railway authority has started internet booking facility of long distance trains and also deliver the tickets at the door-step through courier service at a little extra cost

Assumptions :
I. Many customers may now book their tickets through internet resulting into less crowd at ticket booking offices.}
II. Most of the customers may still buy their railway tickets at the booking counters
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

42. Statements :
" If you have obtained 75% or more marks in X Std. examination, your admission to our coaching class for XII Std. is guaranteed". - An advertisement

Assumptions :
I. Bright students do not generally opt for attending coaching classes
II. The coaching class has adequate capacity to accommodate all such students
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

43. Statements :
The municipal corporation has given permission for holding funfairs in the local football ground during the holiday season

Assumptions:
I. The local residents may protest against the Corporation's decision
II. Many people may not participate in the unfair
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions Q. 44-48: Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity and mark answer:

A. if the inference is definitely true i.e, it properly follows from the statement of facts given
B. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of facts given
C. if the data are inadequate, i.e, from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
D. if the interference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
E. if the inference is definitely false, i.e, it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts

The jeweller-next-door may have reasons to worry, thanks to the organised retail and branded goods hitting the right cord from Indian consumers. The recent changes in lifestyle goods industry and the diamonds industry threatens to impact the family jeweller segment, which currently controls 97% of India's fragmented jewellery retail market. A study suggests that as India's jewellery market matures, it is expected to get more organised and the share of family jeweller is expected to come down. The family jeweller segment is he largest segment of the market and hence, most likely to be impacted by these changes. Family jewellers will have to bring in new practices and range of designs and customisation of jewellery would differentiate the players. Currently, organised retailers are enlarging the pie but the traditional players are not feeling the impact yet

44. Share of business of the small time jewellers will reduce substantially in the near future
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

45. Family jewellers have never customised their designs in the past.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

46. Big retail companies have the capability to bring in more competition in the jewellery market
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

47. Family jewellers at present control about two-third share of the entire jewellery market
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

48. There is a perceptible change in the choices of the customers in recent times with regard to lifestyle products
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions Q.49-53 : Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements and mark answer:

A. if Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
B. if Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect
C. if both the Statements I and II are independent causes
D. if both the Statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E. if both the Statements I and II are effects of some common cause

49. I. The prices of petroleum products dropped marginally last week
II. The State Government reduced the tax on petroleum products last week
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

50. I. Majority of the citizens in the locality belong to higher income group.
II. The sales in the local super market are comparatively much higher than in other localities
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

51.I. A major fire destroyed part of the oil refinery owned by a private company.
II. Government has decided to increase the supply to retailers from the public sector refineries
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

52. I. The Government medical college has decided to increase the number of seats in undergraduate course from the next academic session
II. The Government has decided to withdraw its grant from all the Government medical colleges from the next academic session'
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

53. I. Every year large number of people spend their vacation in various tourist destinations within the country
II. Every year large number of people spend their vacations in various tourist destinations outside the country
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

STATE bANK OF INDIA Subject Knowledge (IT)

ubject Knowledge (IT)

1. Which layers of the OSI model are included in the lower layers?
A. Application, Session, Presentation B. Physical, Transport, Data Link C. Data Link, Physical, Network
D. Session, Data Link, Physical E. None of these

2. From smallest to largest, rank the following logical pieces of the database : data block, table space, extent, segment
A. table space, segment, extent, data block B. data block, segment, extent, table space
C. Segment, extent, data block, table space D. data block, extent, segment, table space E. None of these

3. Where are cookies stored?
A. On the server B. In web.xml C. On the client D. In HTML E. None of these

4. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?
A. Through a power cable B. From an external power supply C. Directly from the computer's power supply
D. Through the USB cable E. None of these

5. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration?
A. The type of drivers that come with the mouse B. The length of the mouse cord C. The type of connector the mouse is equipped with
D. The number of buttons the mouse has E. None of these

6. Programme that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called..................
A. Metasearch engines B. Webcrawlers C. Spiders D. Hits E. None of these

7. You are planning on using a single network that support 208 users. Which IP address class would you choose to be the most effect?
A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D E. Class E

8. Which of the following options is not a JSP implicit object?
A. Out B. In C. Response D. Page E. None of these

9. In Oracle, which statement is true about segments?
A. Each table has its own segment B. A segment is created every time an extent is created, extended, or altered
C. An index segment is created every time a table is created D. A segment is deleted whenever a table is truncated E. None of these

10. All of the following are basic principles of networks, except ...............
A. each computer must have a network card B. there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
C. there must be at least one connecting device D. each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
E. None of these

11. Which of the following could be a legitimate Media Access Control address?
A. 192.168.254.3 B. 3FA2.4756.F9A3 C. A5514 D. C1.3A.77.5B E. None of these

12. The term, hypertext means .................
A. Non-sequential writing B. Hypermedia C. Blinking text D. Text with heavy formatting E. None of these

13. You receive an e-mail message that forms you that a terrible virus has been unleashed on the Internet and that you should warn all the people in your Address Book. Which of the following have you most likely encountered?
A. A virus hoax B. A filter C. A spam D. A virus E. A worm

14. If 20 people need to communicate using symmetric-key cryptography, .................symmetric keys are needed
A. 190 B. 200 C. 20 D. 19 E. 210

15. What should you do as soon as you have successfully created the data base and the data dictionary?
A. Open the data base for users to start adding data B. Start adding a bunch of table space to allow users to use
C. Leave it running for a few days to make sure that nothing bad is going to happen
D. Shut it down and take a cold back up E. None of these

16. Which of the following is the default mask of a class A IP address?
A. 255.0.0.255 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.0.0.0 D. 255.255.255.0 E. None of these

17. What is Internet 2?
A. A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks
B. A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access
C. A new standard for Internet browsers
D. An association to develop advanced Internet technology
E. None of these

18. Which of the following objects is passed to a Java Bean when one of its properties is set via at JSP action?
A. Servlet Request B. Http Servlet Request C. Servlet Response D. Http Servlet Response E. None of these

19. If you wanted to locate the hardware address to a local device, which protocol would you use?
A. ARP B. RARP C. ICMP D. PING E. PONG

20. In oracle, which table space is the minimum required when creating a new data base?
A. Undo table space B. Temporary table space C. System table space D. Users table space E. None of these

21. Data space red sign is not terribly difficult if the .........................
A. data base is structured B. data base is well- designed C. data space has no data D. data base is relatively small
E. data base is relatively large

22. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer system's hard ware?
A. Bootstrap memory B. Volatile memory C. External mass memory D. Static memory E. Random access memory

23. Which of the following is not true about two-tier client-server data base ARCHITECTURE?
A. SQL statements are processed on the server B. SQL statements may be processed on some of the clients
C. Business logic is mostly processed on clients D. Business logic may be processed on the server E. None of these

24. The process by which the structure of the data base is modified to eliminate hidden dependencies and repeating groups is .............
A. enforcing data integrity B. enforcing referential integrity C. indexing D. normalization E. None of these

25. Which of the following functions is not performed by TCP?
A. Flow control B. Sequencing C. Error checking D. Sub netting E. None of these

26. In oracle, who owns the data dictionary?
A. Oracle B. SYS C. The DBA D. SYSTEM E. None of these

27. The reason the data outputs of most ROM ICs are tri-state outputs is to .........
A. allow for three separate data input lines B. allow the bi-directional flow of data between the bus lines and the ROM registers
C. permit the connection of many ROM chips to a common data bus D. isolate the registers from the data bus during read operations
E. None of these

28. To drop a column that is used as a foreign key, first......................
A. drop the primary key B. drop the table C. drop the foreign key constraint D. All of these E. None of these

29. In the straight CGI approach to data-base connectivity on the Internet.....................
A. the external program is located between the client and the web server
B. the external program is located between the data base server and the data base
C. the external program is located between the web server and the data base server
D. there is no external program

30. What is the name of protocol used to eliminate loops?
A. Switching B. ISL C. Frame Tagging D. Spanning Tree Protocol E. Scanning

31. The effect of the ROLLBACK command in a transaction is the following.............................
A. undo all changes to the data base resulting from the execution of the transaction
B. undo the effects of the last UPDATE command
C. restore the content of the data base to its state at the end of the previous day
D. make sure that all changes to the data base are in effect
E. None of these

32. In Oracle, what is the default number of transactions that MAXTRANS is set to if not specified?
A. 512 B. 10 C. 40 D. 1 E. 255

33. To which pin on the RAM chip does the address decoder connect in order to signal which memory chip is being accessed?
A. The address input B. The output enable C. The chip enable D. The data input E. The data output

34. Which of the following switching methods provides the greatest frame through out?
A. Store-and-forward switching B. Frame-tag switching C. Cut-through switching D. ISL switching
E. Store-and-backward switching

35. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
A. Cipher B. Warded C. Device D. Tumbler. E. Typelock

36. A gateway is .............................
A. a device that enables users to send information simultaneously over a network without slowing down transmission
B. an electronic device that connects several computing devices to a network
C. a point in one network that is an entrance point to another network
D. a device that links two or more segments of a network and helps direct traffic
E. None of these

37. Which of the following is considered a vulnerability of SNMP?
A. Clear text community strings B. Its use of TCP C. The fact that it is on by default in Windows 2000 server
D. The fact that it is on by default in Windows XP Professional E. None of these

38. Network routing information distributed among routers is stored in which of the following?
A. Flash memory B. Route table C. Metric table D. NVRAM E. Router memory

39. If the destination did not receive a segment, how will the TCP host know to resend the information?
A. The ACK received will not include the segment number that was not received
B. The ACK received will include the segment number that was not received
C. The sending host will send a PACK to verify segment receipt
D. The destination host will send a YACK message back to the sending host
E. None of these

40. What are the effects of mixing RAM modules with different speed ratings?
A. The system runs at the speed of the slowest RAM stick
B. The system runs normally C. The system runs at the speed of the memory bus
D. The system may not run, or it crashes periodically E. None of these

41. What kind of scheme is the HTTP protocol?
A. Get/ put B. Store/ forward C. Queuing D. Search/ return E. Request/ response'

42. What type of error does a memory parity error create?
A. A fatal exception error B. An NMI error C. A corrupt windows operating system file
D. A GPF error E. A GPA error

43. Which is not a part of the Oracle data base base block?
A. Header B. Row directory C. Data D. Freelists E. None of these

44. Which of the following cannot be used as the scope when using a Java Bean with JSP?
A. Page B. Request C. Session D. Application E. Response

45. Which of the following is used for integrity?
A. DES B. Diffie-Hellman C. SED D. AES E. MD5

46. What is ISL used for?
A. To allow an Ethernet interface to understand frame tags
B. To make two Ethernet interfaces appear as one
C. To connect an Ethernet switch with a high-speed core switch such as ATM
D. To allow simultaneous routing and switching
E. None of these

47. Which of the following describes programs that can run independently, travel from system and disrupt computer communications?
A. Trojans B. Viruses C. Idlers D. Droppers E. Worms

48. You need to configure a switch from a remote subnet. Which of the following must be configured on the switch?
A. Console port B. IP C. Hostname D. SNMP E. Default gateway

49. In Oracle, which is more appropriate to store a small list of values in a single column in each row in your address table?
A. ORACARRAY B. Nested table C. Index organised table D. Index E. VARRAY

50. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information?
A. Visit Google's cached page to view the older copy
B. Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information
C. Visit a partner site of the organisation to see if it is there
D. Use the way back machine
E. None of these

STSTE BANK OF INDIA English

English Language - II

Directions Q. 1-10 : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words/ phrases while are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions

One of the most critical demographic events in the world today is population ageing, i.e., the process by which the share of older individuals in the total population starts becoming larger. The ageing phenomenon, which has been initially experienced by developed countries, is now steadily approaching the developing world. Projections show that over the next five decades, world median age will continue to increase, resulting in enhanced old age dependency ratios in all parts of the world. Thus, population ageing would be a major global public unprecedented challenges for fiscal, monetary and overall macro-economic management.

There is a general consensus that ageing population reduces output growth, limits economic welfare and lowers eMPLOYMENT. One direct effect of population ageing is labour shortages that are caused by declining birth rates and increasing life spans. This translates itself into a higher old-age dependency ratio (i.e., proportion of population aged 15 to 64). Consequently, with ageing, the economy's capacity to sustain the elderly population would decline. An important consequence of this development is reflected in increasing fiscal pressures through higher government spending on social security,HEALTH CARE and other welfare programmes for the elderly accompanied by lower tax buoyancy consequent to falling proportions of the productive labour force. Given the hard budget could mean lower government spending for programmes that primarily benefit the young. With public pension schemes coming under increasing pressure to raise contribution levels or cut the size of social safety benefits, the issue of fiscal sustainability is one of the principal challenges facing policymakers world wide, particularly in the context of intergenerational equity.

The experience of the US, Western Europe and other Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) countries suggests that substantial demographic changes have occured in the past few decades. Improvements in life standards, health care and nutrition have increased life expectancy. As a result, the old-age dependency ration in OECD countries is projected to reach nearly 50 per cent by 2050. This is going to pose a huge fiscal burden in terms of social security, health care, pension and other related expenditures. In this regard, an OECD exercise reveals a rise in old age pension spending, on an average, by about three to four percentage points of GDP over the period till 2050. Expenditure relating to health and long-term medical care is estimated to increase by more than three percentage point of GDP over the same period. Overall, total age-related expenditures relative to GDP cold rise in average by about seven percentage points over the period 2000-2050. In turn, this would imply an average decline of six to seven percentage points in the primary balance to GDP ratio

1. The term " Population ageing" refers to
A. the portion of senior citizen in a developed country. B. the percentage of older people in a developing nation
C. increase in the overall population of a developed country
D. enhancement in the proportion of older people in the population E. None of these

2. Which of the following is definitely true of population ageing?
A. It was almost simultaneously experienced by all the countries of the globe
B. The underdeveloped countries cannot experience the phenomenon.
C. Developing and developed countries experienced the phenomenon respectively in succession
D. The challenges posed by population ageing had been witnessed in the past also.
E. None of these

3. On which of the following points related to population ageing, there is no dispute among thinkers?
A. The direct effect of population ageing is abundance of labourers
B. Economic welfare will be enhanced due to availability to experienced people
C. Employment will be lowered significantly due to population ageing
D. Old age dependency ratio will be lowered significantly
E. None of these

4. What is most likely to happen if the dependency ratio is higher?
A. It would lower the economists capacity to sustain the elderly population
B. Government spending on social security would significantly decline
C. Productive labour force will reduce
D. Due to increased longevity expenditure on health care will reduce
E. None of these

5. Which of the following factors is responsible for increase in longevity?
I. Substantial raise in living status II. Adequate and timely health care III. Nourishing and healthy diet
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. All of these E. None of these

6. Which of the following is most likely to happen by middle of the 21st century?
I. In countries like the US and Western Europe, the old-age dependency ratio is likely to touch 50 per cent
II. Six to seven points increase in primary balance to GDP ratio in OECD countries
III. Raise to the extent of three to four percentage points of GDP in age old pension spending
A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. All of these E. None of these

Directions Q. 7-8: Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word given in bold in the passage.

7. Span
A. width B. gap C. duration D. distance E. extent

8. Consensus
A. agreement B. consent C. harmony D. compromise E. interaction

Directions Q. 9-10: Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word given in bold in the passage

9. Concern
A. reassurance B. comfort C. anxiety D. indifference E. neglect

10. Sustain
A. prolong B. uphold C. protract D. diminish E. quit

Directions Q. 11-20: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

11. A. He grow up the way B. Many young children grow up C. Pampered, adored
D. and inwardly E. No error

12. A. He pulled his lips together B. close his eyes C. and I watched the first teardrop
D. fall down the side of his cheek E. No erro

13. A. One Sunday when his sons B. Rob and Jon was home C. they all gathered
D. in the living room E. No error

14. A. The audit committee of the board B. has been constituted C. by the board of directors
D. as per instructions of the Reserve of India E. No error

15.A Proper care was taken B. for the maintenance of accounting record C. as per accordance with
D. the provisions of applicable E. No error

16. A. Know he was dying B. Morrie visited with Mitch C. his study every Tuesday
D. just as they used to back in college E. No erro

17. A. We are planning B. to set up a training college C. to train our marketing team
D. for effective marketing of our products E. No error

18. A. Nobody knew B. where I spend my day C. and nobody really
D. seemed to care E. No error

19. A. My father has B. always had a curious habit C. which I could never understand
D. of consulting astrologers E. No error

20. A. I stopped at Aurangabad B. from which I make excursions C. to the Ajanta Caves
D. and the temple at Ellora E. No error

Directions. Q. 21-25 : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

I was born on Nov. 30, 1835 in the almost invisible village of Florida, Missouri. My parents moved to Missouri in the early 'thirties'; I do not remember just when, for I was not born then the cared nothing for such things. The village contained a hundred people and I increased the population by one percent. It is more than the best men in history doing as much, not even Shakespeare. But I did it for Florida

Recently, someone in Missouri has sent me a picture of the house I was born in. Heretofore I have always stated that it was a palace but I shall be more careful now.

The village and two streets, each a couple of hundred yards long, covered with stiff black mud in wet times, deep dust in dry. Most of the houses were of logs. There were none of bricks and none of stones. There was a Church, which was a school house on week days. There were two stores in the village. My uncle owned one of them. It was very small with a few rolls of cloth; a few barrels of salt fish, coffee and sugar, brooms, axes and other tools here and there; a lot of cheap hats and in pans strung from the walls. At the other end of the room, there were bags of shot, a cheese or two, and a barrel or so of whisky. If a boy bought five or ten cents' worth of anything he was entitled to a handful of sugar from the barrel; if a woman bought a few yards of cloth; she was entitled to some thread; if a man bought something he was at liberty to swallow as big a drink of whisky as he wanted.

My uncle was also a farmer and his place was in the country for miles for Florida. I have not come across a better man than he was. I was his guest for two or three year after we removed to Hannibal until I was eleven or twelve years old.

21.The author of the passage was born
A. in a busy village B. in a village in Mississippi C. in a village located near a river
D. in a village of Florida in Missouri. E. None of these

22. Since when the author decided not to describe his house as a palace?
A. The day he was born in the invisible village B. When he some one told him not to bluff too much
C. When he saw a dream in which he found his house
D. When some one in Missouri had sent him a picture of the house E. None of these

23. The houses in Florida were made of
A. bricks B. stones C. marbles D. logs E. None of these

24. How was the church utilized on week days?
A. The church was as a theatre for conducting Cinema B. The villagers used it as a vegetable market during week days
C. The church was used as a school on week days D. The log church was kept idle on week days
E. None of these

25. Which of the following statement is true?
I. If a body bought five or ten cents worth of anything, he was entitled to some thread
II. If a woman bought a few yards of cloth, she was entitled to a handful of sugar
III. If a man bought something he was entitled to a mouth full of whisky
A. Only I B. Only II C. Only III D. I and II only E. I, II and III

Directions Q.26-30 : Rearrange the following six sentences I, II, III, IV, V and VI in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions that them:

I. Lastly, my thanks to Ramesh, for wanting to do this last thesis together.
II. And, as always, my appreciation to David, who often believes in me more than I do myself.
III. I would like to acknowledge the enormous help given to me in creating this book.
IV. For their patience, I wish to thank Joseph and John and multitude of my friends
V. Also special thanks to Thomas, my editor, for handling this project with the right touch
VI. Have you ever had a friend like Ramesh

26. Which of the following will be the first sentence after rearrangement?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V

27. Which of the following will be the second sentence after rearrangement?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V

28. Which of the following will be the third sentence after rearrangement?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V

29. Which of the following will be the fourth sentence after rearrangement?
A. II B. III C. IV D. V E. VI

30. Which of the following will be the sixth (last) sentence after rearrangement?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. VI

Directions Q. 31-40: In each of the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are given after the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case

Human Resources Development Department has......31... heads of all Central Office Departments to ....32....to the notice of the employees...33...to their departments....34....the availability of professional counsellor engaged by our organisation on contract basis to....35...counseling services to employees of Mumbai. HRDD has also sought the...36...of all the employees to...37...the fears and unfounded notions, if any, about counseling so that employees were...38...to come forward and avail of it. Counseling facility for employees was...39...in Mumbai on Sept.21 with the help of a professional counsellor. The counsellor is...40...on Mondays in the Main Building Mumbai.

31. A. reported B. indicated C. referred D. advised E. invited'

32. A. tell B. ask C. show D. give E. bring

33. A. affected B. absolved C. attached D. affixed E. surrounded

34. A. regarding B. about C. upon D. aforesaid E. consequent

35. A. decide B. determine C. provide D. takeover E. spread

36. A. availability B. presence C. support D. permission E. objection

37. A. dissolve B. disperse C. dispel D. displace E. differ

38. A. asked B. directed C. diverted D. encouraged E. offered

39. A. obstructed B. observed C. started D. laid E. resulted

40. A. ready B. available C. accessible D. attainable E. approachable

Directions Q. 41-45 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete

41. All letters received from Government should.................... be acknowledged
A. suddenly B. obviously C. immediately D. occasionally E. adequately

42. The note should be.............. to all the concerned departments for their consideration
A. regulated B. requested C. carried D. forwarded E. represented

43. The process should be completed as far as possible within a week, .......... which the matter should be brought to notice of the officer concerned
A. following B. failing C. realising D. referring E. regarding

44. The Officers are ....................to regular transfers
A. free B. open C. subject D. available E. dictated

45. Mumbai Officer...................a meeting of senior officials to discuss the high incidence of frauds
A. attended B. convened C. reported D. registered E. asked