PNB-1246 Clerk, Officer Jobs Jan2010

Punjab National Bank invites Online applications from Indian Citizens for the following posts

1. Officer (Civil Engineer) : 04 Posts
2. Officer (Electrical Engineer) : 03 Posts
3. Officer (Architect) : 02 Posts
4. Clerk : 1246 Posts

Last Date for Online Apply 18.02.2010
Online Starts : 25.01.2010
Date of Written Exam : 04.04.2010 


For complete details Click here

    

PNB-Officer-IT-Banking Recuritment 2009 (Punjab National Bank)

PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK INVITES ONLINE APPLICATIONS
FROM INDIAN CITIZENS FOR THE POST OF OFFICER (IT-BANKING DOMAIN)

Opening Date for Online Registration -22.10.2009
Closing Date for Online Registration (Including for Candidates from Far-Flung Areas)-07.11.2009
Date of Written Examination- 20.12.2009

No. of vacancies- 227

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:-
NATIONALITY/ CITIZENSHIP:
A candidate must be either i) a Citizen of India or ii) a subject of Nepal or iii) subject of Bhutan or iv) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii),
(iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has
been issued by the Government of India A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination/interview conducted by the Bank but on final selection, the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility Certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India.

Age as on 01.07.2009 - Min.21 Max 45

Educational Qualifications (As on the opening date of Registration)-Graduate in any discipline

Post Qualification Work Experience (As on the opening date of Registration)-1 year working experience in Core Banking Solution (Finacle) branches in any bank

FOR MORE INFORMATION CLICK HERE

Punjab National Bank Revised UP Centers for clerk

REVISED VENUE OF WRITTEN TEST FOR THE CANDIDATES WHO APPLIED FOR THE POST OF CLERK FOR VACANCIES IN THE STATE OF UTTAR PRADESH AND
WHO WERE ALLOCATED WRITTEN TEST CENTRE AT BANGALORE
WRITTEN TEST TO BE HELD ON 20.9.2009

CLICK HERE FOR LIST

Punjab National Bank Recruitment 2009Clerks- higher level posts. -

Recruitment for the post of 127 Clerks/Corporate Communicator/Company Secretary/Chief Manager/Senior Managers/Librarians

For Advertisement CLICK HERE

For Downloading Cash Voucher CLICK HERE

For Online Registration(Clerks) CLICK HERE

For Online Registration(Corporate Communicator/Company Secretary/Chief Manager/Senior Managers/Librarians) CLICK HERE

PNB IT Professional Knowledge

(Questions asked in Indian Bank Computer Officers' Exam, 2008 & Professional Knowledge Section of Punjab National Bank P.O. Exam., 2008)

1. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called—
(1) Metasearch engines
(2) Webcrawlers
(3) Spiders
(4) Hits
(5) None of these

2. Graphical diagrams used to represent different multiple perspectives of a system include—
(1) use-case, class, and state diagrams
(2) state, interaction, derivative diagrams
(3) interaction, relationship, and class diagrams
(4) deployment, relationship, and use-case diagrams
(5) None of these

3. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the—
(1) database is structured
(2) database is well-designed
(3) database has no data
(4) database is relatively small
(5) database is relatively large

4. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer system's hardware?
(1) Bootstrap memory
(2) Volatile memory
(3) Exteranl mass memory
(4) Static memory
(5) Random access memory

5. If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use?
(1) ARP
(2) RARP
(3) ICMP
(4) PING
(5) PONG

6. What is Internet 2?
(1) A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks
(2) A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access
(3) A new standard for Internet browsers
(4) An association to develop advanced Internet technology
(5) None of these

7. The term, "hypertext", means—
(1) Non-sequential writing
(2) Hypermedia
(3) Blinking text
(4) Text with heavy formatting
(5) None of these

8. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information?
(1) Visit Google's cached page to view the older copy.
(2) Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information.
(3) Visit a partner site of the organization to see if it is there.
(4) Use the wayback machine.
(5) None of these

9. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
(1) Cipher
(2) Warded
(3) Device
(4) Tumbler
(5) Typelock

10. A……………..sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.
(1) system virus
(2) trojan horse virus
(3) file virus
(4) macro virus
(5) None of these

11. Carbon credit is meant for—
(1) Deforestation
(2) Protection of environment
(3) Rural infrastructure
(4) Diamond trading
(5) Precision farming

12. Acetic acid is present in—
(1) Vinegar
(2) Curd
(3) Lime
(4) Fish
(5) Rancid butter

13. Deep litter and cage systems are associated with—
(1) Dairy development
(2) Pig farming
(3) Poultry growing
(4) Quali farming
(5) Sheep rearing

14. When milk is churned, the cream is separated due to—
(1) Gravitational force
(2) Centrifugal force
(3) Frictional force
(4) Electro magnetic effect
(5) None of the above

15. Agricultural scientist who got Nobel prize for peace—
(1) Dr Norman E. Borlaug
(2) Dr M.S. Swaminathan
(3) Dr Hargovind Khorana
(4) Dr Chandrasekhar
(5) Dr Watson

16. Free flow of capital, goods and services is envisaged under—
(1) WTO
(2) Food Bill
(3) AEZ
(4) Essential commodities Act
(5) Warehouse Bill

17. Process involved in the conversion of milk to curd is—
(1) Oxidation
(2) Dehydration
(3) Hydrogenation
(4) Fermentation
(5) Hydration

18. National Policy for Farmers 2007 is formulated based on the recommendations of—
(1) Committee on Financial Inclusion
(2) Vaidyanathan Committee
(3) Forward Market Commission
(4) Working Group on Agriculture
(5) National Commission on Farmers

19. The Head Quarters of CFTRI—the leading institute for research on various food products is located at—
(1) Mysore
(2) New Delhi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Gurgaon
(5) Jammu

20. Common refrigerant used in fridges and cold storages—
(1) Neon
(2) Freon
(3) Crypton
(4) Argon
(5) Ice

21. Who among the following is the author of the novel ‘Two Lives’?
(1) Salman Rushdie
(2) Vikram Seth
(3) Arundhati Roy
(4) Ruskin Bond
(5) Dhruv Sawhney

22. Who among the following has been appointed as the first Chief Information Commissioner of India?
(1) Vijay Shankar
(2) T.N. Seshan
(3) Wajahat Habibullah
(4) Mathew Varghese
(5) M.H. Baig

23. On which of the following dates is World AIDS Day observed?
(1) December 9
(2) December 1
(3) November 30
(4) October 24
(5) December 30

24. Which of the following is India’s first indigenous animation film?
(1) Hanuman
(2) Ramayana
(3) Harry Potter
(4) Mughal-e-Azam
(5) Ram Sita

25. Who among the following has been sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashimir?
(1) Mufti Mohammed Sayeed
(2) Ghulam Nabi Azad
(3) Omar Abdullah
(4) M.H. Baig
(5) T. N. Seshan

ANSWERS:
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (5) 5. (1)
6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (1)
16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)

Syllabus for Deputy Manager (IT) of PNB-Pattern

The syllabus for Deputy Manager (IT) of PNB exam will consist of specialization of your field. It may cover:

Speciality:
1. Basics of Computer (WINDOWS OS/DOS)

2. Office Applications.

3. RDBMS - Oracle etc

4. Networking

5. Hardware

6. internet technologies

7. Other emerging technologies

General:
8. Reasoning

9. English.

10. Mathematics

NOTE: Please do NOT consider this syllabus to be official

Pattern

PNB Bank has sent the syllabus along with the Roll Numbers. The Exam Pattern is:

1. Professional Knowledge - 40 Questions - 90 Marks
2. English - 35 Questions - No Marks (You just need to Qualify)
   
3. Quantitative - 35 Questions - 35 Marks
   
4. Reasoning - 50 Questions - 75 Marks

PNB IT Recruitment 2008 Notification

Post code	Name of post	Grade/ scale	No. of vacancies
01	Electrical Engineer	MMG Scale II	3
02	Deputy Manager (IT) (with 2 advance increments)	JMG Scale I	201
03	Officer (IT-Banking Domain)	JMG Scale I	260
TOTAL	464

STARTING DATE FOR ONLINE REGISTRATION : 13.08.2008
CLOSING DATE FOR ONLINE REGISTRATION : 06.09.2008
DATE OF WRITTEN EXAMINATION : 05.10.2008

3. AGE, EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS AND POST-QUALIFICATION WORK EXPERIENCE:

Post Code	Post	Age as on 01.07.2008	Educational Qualifications	Experience
01	Electrical Engineer	Max. 33	B.E./B.Tech. in Electrical Engineering or Diploma in Electrical Engineering	3 years for B.E./B.Tech. and 5 years for Diploma holders
02	Dy Manager (IT)	Max. 28	Degree in Engineering in the field of Computer Science/IT/Electronics OR MCA	–
03	Officer (IT-Banking Domain)	Min. 21 Max. 40	Graduate in any discipline.	1 year working experience in Core Banking Solution (Finacle) Branches in any Bank

SELECTION PROCEDURE:

(a) Selection will be on the basis of written test and interview. The question paper for the written examination will be bilingual, i.e. in Hindi and English, except for the Test of English Language.

(b) Merely satisfying the eligibility norms will not entitle a candidate to be called for written test/interview. The Bank may call only the requisite number of candidates after preliminary screening/short-listing with reference to the candidates’ qualifications, suitability, experience etc.

(c) The written test will be held on 05.10.2008.

4. FEE AND POSTAGE CHARGES (NON-REFUNDABLE)

(i) For candidates belonging to SC/ST/PC categories, there is no application fee except postage charges of Rs 50/-.

(ii) For all other categories, including OBC/dependents of servicemen killed in action, the application fee is Rs 250/- + Rs 50/- postage charges = Rs 300/-.

5. HOW TO APPLY:

1. The application fee may be paid in cash, separately for each post if the candidate wishes to apply for more than one post, at any of the Bank’s Core Banking Branches (CBBs).
2. Before depositing the fee, the candidate must download a copy of the payment voucher from our website www.pnbindia.com. The voucher will be in duplicate. The following details must be entered into both copies of the voucher:

(i) Candidate’s name,

(ii) Candidate’s category,

(iii) Name and code no. of the Branch selected for payment,

(iv) Date of payment and

(v) Fee to be paid

1. Thereafter, the voucher is to be presented at the Branch, along with the application fee.
2. After payment, the candidate must ensure that the transaction id generated is entered into the voucher. The candidate’s copy of the voucher will then be handed over to him/her.
3. Payment of fee should be made on or before 06.09.2008. The date will be the same for candidates belonging to far-flung areas.
4. To apply, candidates should log onto our website www.pnbindia.com. No other means/mode of application will be accepted.
5. The transaction id provided by the Branch after payment must be quoted in the application and the original payment voucher must be produced along with the call letter at the time of the written test.
6. Candidates will have to submit separate applications for each post after paying a separate fee for each post, in case they wish to apply for more than one post.
7. Applications, once submitted, will not be allowed to be withdrawn and the application fee/ postage, once paid, shall be neither refunded nor held in reserve for any other examination.
8. Application registration on our website will be open from 13.08.2008 to 06.09.2008. The last date for registering applications online is 06.09.2008.
9. The candidate should have a valid email id. This will enable him/her to receive call letter/ interview advice etc. by email.
10. Candidates should keep a printout of the completed application as well as a copy of the payment voucher, for their record. An ‘Information Handout’ will be sent to the candidates along with the call letter for written test.

For more details please visit the official website for Punjab National Bank

PNB IT Officier sample paper

1. The _____ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null.

(a) entity integrity rule

(b) referential integrity constraint

(c) action assertion

(d) composite attribute

(e) None of these

2. An applet __________

(a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client

(b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website

(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client

(d) collects data from visitors to a Website

(e) None of these

3. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.

(a) system virus

(b) Trojan horse virus

(c) file virus

(d) macro virus

(e) None of these

4. Which error detection method uses one’s complement arithmetic?

(a) Simply parity check

(b) Checksum

(c) Two-dimensional parity check

(d) CRC

(e) None of these

5. A result of a computer virus can not lead to ___.

(a) Disk Crash

(b) Mother Board Crash

(c) Corruption of program

(d) Deletion of files

(e) None of these

6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model-

(a) Transport

(b) Network

(c) Data Link

(d) Physical

(e) All of these

7. Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse?

(a) Subject-oriented

(b) Integrated

(c) Time-variant

(d) Updateable

(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is true ?

(a) Logical design is software-dependent

(b) In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location

(c) Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model

(d) Logical design is software independent

(e) None of these

9. A range check _____

(a) ensures that only the correct data type is entered into a field

(b) verifies that all required data is present

(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit

(d) tests if the data in two or more associated fields is logical

(e) None of these

10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-

(a) HTTP

(b) Browser

(c) WWW

(d) B2B

(e) None of these

11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or_____.a programmer.

(a) carries out, the details of an object for

(b) hides, the details of an object from

(c) reveals, the details of an object to

(d) extends, the details of an object beyond

(e) None of these

12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct_____

(a) firewall

(b) proxy server

(c) IP address

(d) domain name

(e) None of these

13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?

(a) Join index

(b) Bitmap index

(c) B + Tree

(d) Hierarchical index

(e) None of these

14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?

(a) Data integrity

(b) The type of database

(c) The user’s perspective

(d) The business practices and policies

(e) None of these

15. The ___.converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines.

(a) Modem

(b) Router

(c) Gateway

(d) Bridge

(e) All of these

16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be___.

(a) executed

(b) referenced

(c) imported

(d) declared

(e) None of these

17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction___.

(a) begin the line with a # sign

(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)

(c) begin and end the line with double hyphens (-_-)

(d) indent the line

(e) None of these

18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as____

(a) 4GLs

(b) macro languages

(c) object-oriented languages

(d) visual programming languages

(e) None of these

19. Firewalls are used to protect against___.

(a) Unauthorized Attacks

(b) Virus Attacks

(c) Data Driven Attacks

(d) Fire Attacks

(e) All of these

20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user’s request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user-

(a) Interrupt request

(b) Forward DNS lookup

(c) Data-Link layer

(d) File Transfer Protocol

(e) Common gateway interface

21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are__.

(a) Schema, Base and Table

(b) Base, Table and Schema

(c) Key, Base and Table

(d) Schema, Table and View

(e) None of these

22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.

(a) never sent to the client machine

(b) sent in very large sections to save processing time

(c) sent only upon the client’s request

(d) sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort

(e) sent from the client to the server for processing

23. Which of the following will not eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?

(a) Define the attribute as required

(b) Define subtypes

(c) Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank

(d) Define supertypes

(e) None of these

24. The____directory is mandatory for every disk.

(a) Root

(b) Base

(c) Sub

(d) Case

(e) None of these

25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.

(a) Channel bank

(b) Cluster

(c) Tiger team

(d) Serverless backup

(e) Logical unit

ANSWERS

1. (a) (c) (e) (b) (b)

6. (e) (d) (a) (c) (a)

11. (b) (c) (b) (b) (a)

16. (c) (b) (d) (a) (e)

21. (d) (c) (d) (c) (b)

Punjab National Bank Agriculture Officers Exam

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Sand
(B) Stone
(C) Cement
(D) Brick
(E) Wall
Ans : (E)

2. If Yellow is called Green, Green is called Black, Black is called White, White is called Red, Red is called Blue, Blue is called Orange then what is the colour of milk ?
(A) White
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Green
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Pointing to a photograph Seema said ‘He is the only grandson of my mother’s father-in-law’. How is the man in photograph related to Seema ?
(A) Father
(B) Uncle
(C) Cousin
(D) Brother
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans : (D)

4. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘–’ and ‘–’ means ‘+’ what is the value of—
17 + 15 – 135 × 9 ÷ 70 ?
(A) 270
(B) 240
(C) 170
(D) 200
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the fourth, the fifth, the sixth, the eighth and the eleventh letters of the word GOURMANDISE using each letter only once first letter of the word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is X. If no such word can be formed your answer is Y—
(A) D
(B) R
(C) M
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (D)

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Nickel
(D) Copper
(E) Brass
Ans : (E)

7. In a certain code EXTRA is written as % 5 # 73 and NOSE is written as 4 @ 8%; how is STORE written in that code ?
(A) 5#@7%
(B) 8#@7%
(C) 8#@%5
(D) 8@75%
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. In a row of children facing North, Shamika is third to the right of Nikhil who is seventeenth from the right end of the row. Ravi is fifth to the left of Shamika and is twentieth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 39
(B) 38
(C) 37
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXAMINATION each of which has as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. In a certain code ACQUIRE is written as EIRUQAC, how is DENSITY written in that code ?
(A) YTISNDE
(B) YITSNED
(C) YTISNED
(D) YITSNDE
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) These questions are based on the following letter/number/ symbol arrangement.
Study it carefully and answer the questions.
T 8 # 1 7 F J 5 % E R @ 4 D A 2 B © Q K 3 1 ● U H 6 L

11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a vowel ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) E@%
(B) #78
(C) 5EJ
(D) U6●
(E) QKB
Ans : (E)

13. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)

14. What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
TL8 #6I 7HF ?
(A) FUJ
(B) JU●
(C) FU●
(D) JU5
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

15. Which of the following is seventh to the right of thirteenth from the right ?
(A) 1
(B) ●
(C) F
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each question below are given three statements followed by two conclus ions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answer (A), (B), (C), (D)
and (E) is correct answer and indicate it on the answersheet. Give answer—
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow
Ans : (C)

16. Statements :
Some cards are plastics.
Some Plastics are metals.
All metals are pots.
Conclusions :
I. Some pots are cards.
II. No pot is a card.
Ans : (C)

17. Statements :
All chairs are tables.
All tables are trains.
All trains are buses.
Conclusions :
I. All tables are buses.
II. All trains are tables.
Ans : (A)

18. Statements :
Some machines are computers.
Some computers are calculators.
Some calculators are phones.
Conclusions :
I. Some phones are computers.
II. Some computers are machines.
Ans : (B)

19. Statements :
All spoons are bowls.
Some bowls are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Conclusions :
I. Some glasses are spoons.
II. Some plates are bowls.
Ans : (D)

20. Statements :
Some envelopes are packets.
Some packets are boxes.
All boxes are parcels.
Conclusions :
I. Some parcels are packets.
II. Some parcels are boxes.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and give answer—
(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

21. Among D, B, J, T and F who was the first person to reach the office ?
I. D reached before J and F but after B.
II. B was not the first to reach office.
Ans : (E)

22. What is the code for ‘not’ in the code language ?
I. In the code language ‘do not go’ is written as ‘la ra de’.
II. In the code language ‘go to school’ is written as ‘ka ma ra.’
Ans : (D)

23. How many children are there in the class ?
I. Rita ranks 23rd from the top.
II. Anita ranks 17th from the bottom and is five ranks above Rita.
Ans : (E)

24. How is Neela related to Deepa ?
I. Neela’s mother is Deepa’s brother’s wife.
II. Neela is the only granddaughter of Deepa’s mother.
Ans : (C)

25. R is in which direction with respect to T ?
I. R is to the east of H who is to the north of T.
II. Q is to the east of T and to the South of R
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) These questions are based on the following arrangements I & II. Study them carefully and answer the questions that follow—
I. P T 7 A # 4 B C 3 @ K F 1 9 ●
II. E H L © 6 8 $ U 5 J M 2 D% 1

26. How many such symbols are there in arrangements I & II together each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a numeral ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

27. If P7© : TAL : : B3J : ?
(A) @KJ
(B) C@J
(C) C@5
(D) 3KJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. Which element will be third to the right of seventh element from right end in the arrangement I if the order of its elements is reversed ?
(A) 7
(B) #
(C) F
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the position of the elements in the above two arrangements ?
H7 ©# 8B ?
(A) U3
(B) $C
(C) 3J
(D) UC
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

30. If the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth elements in arrangement II are replaced by the respective elements in arrangement I, which element will be third to the left of sixth element from the right end in arrangement II ?
(A) $
(B) B
(C) 7
(D) L
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Symbols @, %, ●, $ and # are used with following meanings—
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.
‘A % B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.
‘A ● B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B.’
‘A # B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. Give answer—
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.

31. Statements : G @ H, H ● Q, Q $ M
Conclusions : I. M % G
II. H $ M
Ans : (E)

32. Statements : F ● B, B @ E, E # J
Conclusions : I. F @ E
II. J $ B
Ans : (A)

33. Statements : R $ H, H % M, M # F
Conclusions : I. F $ H
II. F @ R
Ans : (D)

34. Statements : T # L, L % W, W @ V
Conclusions : I. L % V
II. T % W
Ans : (B)

35. Statements : K % L, L # T, I $ T
Conclusions : I. L % I
II. L ● I
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) These questions are based on the following information—
Seven persons R, J, M, Q, L, T and K conduct workshop on Developing Managerial skills in seven different companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G on a different day of the week from Monday to Sunday. The order of persons, companies and days of the week are not necessarily the same.

J organizes workshop in Company D on Wednesday. Q does not conduct workshop for companies A or C and conducts on the next day of L who conducts the workshop for
Company F. T conducts workshop for Company E on Friday. K conducts workshop on Monday but not for Company C or G. M conducts workshop for Company A but not on
Tuesday.

36. Who conducts workshop on Saturday ?
(A) M
(B) Q
(C) L
(D) Q or L
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. On which day does Q conduct the workshop ?
(A) Sunday
(B) Saturday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. M conducts workshop on which day ?
(A) Saturday
(B) Sunday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Thursday
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

39. Which of the following combinations of person-company and day is correct ?
(A) K–B–Wednesday
(B) R–B–Monday
(C) K–C–Monday
(D) K–G–Sunday
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

40. Who conducts workshop for Company C and on which day ?
(A) R, Thursday
(B) R, Tuesday
(C) Q, Saturday
(D) Q, Sunday
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) Below in each question are given two statements (a) and (b). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer—
(A) If statement (a) is the cause and statement (b) is its effect
(B) If statement (b) is the cause and statement (a) is its effect
(C) If both the statements (a) and (b) are independent causes
(D) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of some common cause

41. (a) Government of state ‘X’ imposed a higher sales tax on petroleum products compared to the neighbouring states.
(b) All the petrol pumps in the state observed ‘bandh’ in protest.
Ans : (A)

42. (a) Attendance for the All India examination held in July 2006 was poor at all the
centres.
(b) Western States of the country were affected by heavy floods during July 2006.
Ans : (D)

43. (a) High Court has declared stay on construction of residential buildings on the
land under dispute.
(b) A large number of middle class salaries people had booked flats in the buildings
under dispute.
Ans : (C)

44. (a) Residents in the locality have now decided to launch a cleanliness drive.
(b) Civic authorities in the city have recorded many cases of Cholera and gastro.
Ans : (B)

45. (a) Senior citizens of the city have complained about the late night disturbance
caused due to loudspeakers used during festivals.
(b) Though, the Government has issued a directive banning late night celebrations
involving use of loudspeakers, it is not being strictly followed in some of the areas.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) An organization wants to recruit Manager—HRD for its umbai division. The following criteria have been laid down, to be eligible for selection. The
candidate must—
(a) Be a graduate in any discipline passed in first class with minimum 60% marks
(b) Have done post graduate degree/diploma in HRD or personnel management with minimum 65% marks
(c) Have cleared the selection test with minimum 50% marks
(d) Have cleared the interview with minimum 45% marks
(e) Be not less than 21 years and not more than 28 years of age as on 1.2.2007.

However, if a candidate satisfies all other criteria except for—
(i) At (b) above but has got-at-least two years post-qualification experience of working in HRD department case may be referred to the Chairman of the organisation.
(ii) At (c) above but has secured minimum 45% marks in selection test and 55% marks in interview the case may be referred to the President of the organization.

In each of the questions below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following five decisions based on the information provided and the criteria and
conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.2.2007. You have to
indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows. Give answer—

(A) If the candidate is to be selected
(B) If the candidate is not to be selected
(C) If the case is to be referred to Chairman
(D) If the case is to be referred to President
(E) If the data provided is not adequate to decide the course of action

46. Nalini Zaveri has done her graduation in Arts in first class with 60% marks and postgraduate management diploma in HRD with 62% marks. Her date of birth is 16.1.1981. She has been working in the HRD department of a bank for past three years after completing her post-graduation diploma in HRD. She has secured 55% marks in selection test and 50% marks in interview.
Ans : (C)

47. Rajesh Nalawade is a B. Sc. In first class with 75% marks and post-graduate in personnel management with 60% marks. He is working as an Officer in administration department of an organisation for past two years. He has secured 55% marks in selection test and 52% marks in interview. He has completed 26 years of age in November 2006.
Ans : (B)

48. Shyam Bansode has passed B. Com. in first class with 65% marks and MBA in personnel management with 72% marks. He has cleared the selection test with 58% marks and interview with 52% marks. His date of birth is 17.5.1983.
Ans : (A)

49. Nikhil Agnihotri is a postgraduate in personnel management passed out in 2005 at the
age of 24 years securing 71% marks. He has secured 62% marks in selection test and 57% marks in interview.
Ans : (E)

50. Sujata Shirke has passed out B. Com. in first class with 62% marks in 2003 at the age of 21 years. Thereafter she has done MBA with specialization in HRD with 72% marks. She has secured 48% marks in selection test and 58% marks in interview.
Ans : (D)

PNB OFFICER RECRUITMENT 2008 SOLVED PAPER

COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ

1. Why the document you created at home displays with a different font at school?

Because you have a different printer at school than at home Because you have a different monitor at school than at home

font you used at home is not installed on your school computer Because the version of Windows is different

2. Which keyboard shortcut centers selected text?

Ctrl+C Alt+C There is no keyboard shortcut for this operation Ctrl+E

3. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?

TXT WRD FIL DOC

4. Which key moves your cursor from one cell to the next in a table?

Tab Shift Enter Ctrl+Enter

5. How many different documents can you have open at one time?

No more that three Only one As many as your computer memory will hold No more than your Taskbar can display

6. In order to email a Word document from within Word:

Go to File/Send To/Mail Recipient Save the file as an email attachment Start Outlook and attach the file while open in Word This is an impossible operation

7. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end of a long document?

Ctrl+PageUp and Ctrl+PageDown Shift+Home and Shift+End Ctrl+Home and Ctrl+End The only way is by using the right scroll bar

8. How many margins are on a page?

Two (header and footer) Four (top, bottom, right, left) Two (landscape and Portrait) Two (top and bottom)

9.In order to save a Word document as a web page you need to:

Put the appropriate graphics and links on the document Save the document in simple text format Use your web browser as an editor and save as URL Save as HTML

10. A document in portrait prints:

The same characters per line with the same document in landscape More characters per line than the same document in landscape Less characters per line than the same document in landscape Smaller fonts in order to fit the same amount of characters per line with landscape

GK QUIZ

1. Miss Universe award for 2008 has been awarded to –

Tanvi Vyas
Dayana Mendoza
SimranKaur Mundi
Crystle Stewart

2. Who among the following is the winner of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2007? –

Sachin Tendulkar
Saurav Ganguli
Sanjeeva Kumar Singh
Mahendra Singh Dhoni

3. The Mascot of the 2008 Olympic Games was-

Fuwa
Izz
Izz
Cobi

4. Which among the following States would observe 2008 as the‘Year of Education’ ?

Uttar Pradesh
Haryana
Bihar
Karnataka

5. Who has written “Unaccustomed Earth” ?

Jhumpa Laheri
Kiran Desai
Arundhati Roy
Khushwant Singh

6. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007 ?

Priya Ranjan Das Munshi
Mani Shankar Aiyyar
P.Chidambaram
Sushama Swaraj

7. Duwuri Subbarao's name was in news recently as he has taken over as the Governor of
RBI
SBI
SEBI
Bihar

8. ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on -

15th March,2008
30th March,2008
28th April,2008
4th May,2008

9. Which country was host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?

Maldives
Sri Lanka
India
Pakistan

10. Who among the following is the winner of the Wimbledon open Tennis Tournament 2008 of the Women's Single Title ?

Serena Williams
Venus Wlliams
Maria Sharapova
Ana Ivanovic

Punjab National Bank P.O. Exam Solved Paper General awareness

1. Nav Krishi is a programme by—
(1) Door Darshan
(2) All India Radio
(3) NIC
(4) ICRISAT
(5) MANAGE

2. One Acre is equal to…………..hectare.
(1) 0.0541
(2) 0.8032
(3) 0.1082
(4) 0.2514
(5) 0.4047

3. SRI technology is practiced for the cultivation of—
(1) Fruits
(2) Vegetables
(3) Flowers
(4) Rice
(5) Wheat

4. If the soil pH 9.2, then the soil is—
(1) Acidic
(2) Neutral
(3) Alkaline
(4) Saline
(5) Sodic

5. …………..is used for the reclamation of acidic soil—
(1) Lime
(2) Gypsum
(3) Sulphur
(4) Calcium Chloride
(5) Ferrous Sulphate

6. 2008 is declared as International Year of—
(1) Rice
(2) Wheat
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Potato
(5) Apple

7. Golden revolution refers to the development of—
(1) Oilseeds
(2) Pulses
(3) Horticulture
(4) Cereals
(5) Fodder

8. The most important rabi pulse crop in India is—
(1) Chickpea
(2) Soyabean
(3) Pigeon pea
(4) Green gram
(5) Black gram

9. RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism) is—
(1) Growth promoter
(2) Molecular marker
(3) Growth retardent
(4) Herbicide
(5) Germicide

10. National Commission on Farmers was chaired by—
(1) Sri Som Pal
(2) Sri Y.C. Nanda
(3) Dr C. Rangarajan
(4) Dr M.S. Swaminathan
(5) Sri Sharad Pawar

11. Global Positioning Systems are useful for—
(1) Determining precise location (latitude and longitude) based on radio signal
(2) Determining precise distance based on radio signal
(3) Determining general pest system
(4) Determining disease forecast
(5) Determining area of farm

12. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends—
(1) Comfort Price
(2) State Advised Price
(3) Minimum Support Price
(4) Minimum Export Price
(5) Statutory Minimum Price

13. NPV (Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus) is—
(1) Pest
(2) Pathogen
(3) Bio pesticide
(4) Bio fungicide
(5) Bio control agent

14. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation is known as—
(1) NIAM
(2) NAFED
(3) MARKFED
(4) NACMF
(5) NACOM

15. Which insect is known as farmers' enemy No.1?
(1) Bollworm
(2) Desert locust
(3) Aphids
(4) Stem borer
(5) Fruit fly

16. Indian Institute of Forest management is located at—
(1) Chennai
(2) Bhopal
(3) Hissar
(4) Dehradun
(5) Imphal

17. In India forests account for about …………..of land surface.
(1) 11%
(2) 22%
(3) 33%
(4) 14%
(5) 25%

18. VAM is an alternative to inorganic fertilizer. VAM is—
(1) Azospirillum
(2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Phosphate solubilising bacteria
(4) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(5) Azotobacter

19. An example of Single Cell Protein is—
(1) agar agar
(2) spirulina
(3) rhizobium
(4) acetobacter
(5) salmonella

20. Major producer of mulberry silk in India—
(1) Karnataka
(2) Jammu and Kashmir
(3) Jharkhand
(4) Assam
(5) Himachal Pradesh

21. Bird flu affects—
(1) Cattle
(2) Poultry
(3) Sheep
(4) Prawn
(5) Silkworm

22. Minor irrigation scheme comprises several types of works with capacities to irrigate upto—
(1) 2000 acre
(2) 2000 ha
(3) 1000 ha
(4) 1000 acre
(5) 2500 ha

23. Ideal NPK ratio for Indian soils is—
(1) 8 : 4 : 2
(2) 4 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 5 : 3
(4) 2 : 1 : 0.5
(5) 10 : 4 : 2

24. Which of the following is a bio diesel plant?
(1) Jatropha
(2) Rose
(3) Pepper
(4) Noni
(5) Teak

25. National Research Centre on Plant Biotechnology is situated at—
(1) Nagpur
(2) New Delhi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Kolkata
(5) Chennai

Answers :
1. (1) 2. (5) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (1)
6. (4) 7. (3)8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)