This section contains 25 questions
1. Consider the sets = (2, 3, 4,...., 2n+1}, where n is a positive integer larger than 2007. Define X as the average of the odd integers in S and Y as the average of the even integers in S. What is the value of X-Y?
| (1) 0 | (2) 1 | (3)  | (4)  | (5) 2008 |
Solution:
S = {2, 3, 4,…………, 2n+1} n greater then equal to 2007
If you take n = 2008
The series of even no. is 2, 4, …………4016 ? average = 2009 = Y
The series of odd no. is 3, 5, ………4017? average = 2010 = X
X – Y = 2010 – 2009 = 1
Hence the answer is option (2).
2. Ten years ago, the ages of the members of a joint family of eight people added up to 231 years. Three years later, one member died at the age of 60 years and a child was born during the same year. After another three years, one more member died, again at 60, and a child was born during the same year. The current average age of this eight-member joint family is nearest to
| (1) 23 years | (2) 22 years | (3) 21 years | (4) 25 years | (5) 24 years |
Solution:
Ten years ago, the sum of the ages of 8 members in the family = 231
After 3 years, the age of every member increases by 3; hence the total age increases by 8X3 = 24.
The total age is 231 + 24 = 255
A member of 60 years age died = 255 – 60 = 195
Similarly, again after 3 years,
Sum of the ages of all members = 195 + 24 = 219
Again a member of age 60 died = 219 – 60 = 159
Now they have asked the sum in the current years, so the remaining years are 4.
Hence the sum increases by 8 * 4 = 32
Total sum of the ages of 8 members in the present year = 159 + 32 = 191
Average age = 191 / 8 = 23.8 = 24 (approx)
Hence the answer is option (5).
3. A function 1 satisfies f(1)= 3600, and f(1)+f(2) + ... +f(n) = n 2f(n), for all positive integers n > 1. What is the value of f(9) ?
| (1) 80 | (2) 240 | (3) 200 | (4) 100 | (5) 120 |
Solution:
Given f(1) = 3600 and f(1) + f(2) + …………+ f(n) = n2f(n)
f(1) + f(2) = 22f(2). Therefore f(2) = f(0)/3
f(2) = 1200
Similarly f(3) = 600, f(4) = 390, f(5) = 341.25, f(6) = 175.1
f(7) = 131.3, f(8) = 102.74, f(9) = 81.7, approx (80)
f(9) = 80
Hence the answer is option (1).
4. Suppose you have a currency, named Miso, in three denominations: 1 Miso, 10 Misos and 50 Misos. In how many ways can you pay a bill of 107 Misos ?
| (1)17 | (2) 16 | (3) 18 | (4)15 | (5) 19 |
Solution:
The bill of 107 Misos can be paid in the following ways:
| Number of coins in Denomination 50
| Number of coins in Denomination 10 | Number of coins in Denomination 1 | Amount |
0 | 0 | 107 | 107 |
0 | 1 | 97 | 107 |
0 | 2 | 87 | 107 |
0 | 3 | 77 | 107 |
0 | 4 | 67 | 107 |
0 | 5 | 57 | 107 |
0 | 6 | 47 | 107 |
0 | 7 | 37 | 107 |
0 | 8 | 27 | 107 |
0 | 9 | 17 | 107 |
0 | 10 | 7 | 107 |
1 | 0 | 57 | 107 |
1 | 1 | 47 | 107 |
1 | 2 | 37 | 107 |
1 | 3 | 27 | 107 |
1 | 4 | 17 | 107 |
2 | 0 | 7 | 107 |
So, the number of combinations is 18.
Hence the answer is option (3).
5. A confused bank teller transposed the rupees and paise when he cashed a cheque for Shailaja, giving her rupees instead of paise and paise instead of rupees. After buying a toffee for 50 paise, Shailaja noticed that she was left with exactly three times as much as the amount on the cheque. Which of the following is a valid statement about the cheque amount?
(1) Over Rupees 13 but less than Rupees 14
(2) Over Rupees 7 but less than Rupees 8
(3) Over Rupees 22 but less than Rupees 23
(4) Over Rupees 18 but less than Rupees 19
(5) Over Rupees 4 but less than Rupees 5
Solution:
| Rs. | P | ||
I case | X | Y | Cheque amount |
II case | Y | X | Cost Amount |
It is given that after buying a toffee for 50 paise, she is left with 3 times of the amount on the cheque. Therefore
3(X + Y/100) = (Y + X – 50/100)
(299X + 50)/100 = (97Y/100)
Y = 3X + (8X + 50/97)
X = 18 giving an integral value
So the answer will be between 18 and 19.
Hence the answer is option (4).
6. How many pairs of positive integers m, n satisfy
where n is an odd integer less than 60 ?
| (1) 6 | (2) 4 | (3) 7 | (4) 5 | (5) 3 |
Solution:
The given condition is 1/m + 4/n = 1/12
= (n + 4m)12 = mn
= 12n + 48m = mn
= mn – 12n + 48m = 0
= n(m – 12) + 48 (m – 12) = 12 * 48 = 576
= (m – 12) (n + 48) = 576
Now, the prime factors of 576 which satisfy m = 12n / (n – 48) are 49, 51, and 57.
Hence the answer is option (5).
Directions for Questions 7 through 10:
Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Indicate your responses based on the following directives:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered using A alone but not using B alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered using B alone but not using A alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered using A and B together, but not using either A or B alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered even using A and B together.
7. The average weight of a class of 100 students is 45 kg. The class consists of two sections, I and II, each with 50 students. The average weight, WI of Section I is smaller than the average weight, WII of Section II. If the heaviest student, say Deepak, of Section II is moved to Section 1, and the lightest student, say Poonam, of Section I is moved to Section II, then the average weights of the two sections are switched, i.e., the average weight of Section I becomes WII and that of Section II becomes WI. What is the weight of Poonam?
A: WII - WI = 1.0
B: Moving Deepak from Section II to I (without any move from Ito II) makes the average weights of the two sections equal.
Solution:
We are given the average weight of a class of 100 students which is 45 kg. Let the weight of Poonam and Deepak be P and D respectively Also,
WI <>II (given)
Now, WI + WII = 90 … (1)
When Deepak moves from section II to I, then average would be
50 WI – P + D = 50WII…….. (2)
By using statement A:
WII– WI = 1 … (2)
We get WI = 44.5 and WII = 45.5
For this we can’t say about the weight of Poonam.
By using statement B:
We get (50WI + D) / 51 = (50WII – D) / 49
51WII – 49Wi = 2D by which we can’t deduce the value of D.
Finally By using both the statement we can deduce the value of D.
After getting the value of D we can easily find out the value of P
Hence the correct answer option is (3).
8. ABC Corporation is required to maintain at least 400 Kilolitres of water at all times in its factory, in order to meet safety and regulatory requirements. ABC is considering the suitability of a spherical tank with uniform wall thickness for the purpose. The outer diameter of the tank is 10 meters. Is the tank capacity adequate to meet ABC requirements?
A: The inner diameter of the tank is at least 8 meters.
B: The tank weighs 30,000 kg when empty, and is made of a material with density of
3 gm/cc.
Solution:
A = inner diameter is at least 8 meter, so from 8 to 10, there can be many values. So this answer is not possible.
B = weight = 30, 000 kg & density = 39gm/cc
So we can find the volume, we also know the outer diameter, so we can find the inner diameter.
The answer is option (2).
9. Consider integers x, y and z. What is the minimum possible value of x2+y2+z2 ?
A: x+y+z =89
B: Among x, y, z two are equal.
Solution:
Using statement A: x + y + z = 89.
For x2 + y2 + z2 to be minimum, each of x, y, z, must take equal integral value nearest to 89 / 3. Let x = 30, y = 30, and z = 29.
Therefore minimum value of x2 + y2 + z2 = 2641
Hence statement A alone is sufficient.
From statement B alone nothing can be specified.
Hence correct answer option is (1).
10. Rahim plans to draw a square JKLM with a point 0 on the side JK but is not successful. Why is Rahim unable to draw the square?
A: The length of OM is twice that of OL.
B. The length of OM is 4 cm.
Solution:
The maximum length of OM will be side x square root 2 when O is at K and it forms a diagonal.
A = the length of OM that is twice of OL
Hence the answer is (1).
Directions for Questions 11 and 12:
Cities A and B are in different time zones. A is located 3000 km east of B. The table below describes the schedule of an airline operating non-stop flights between A and B. All the times indicated are local and on the same day.
| Departure | Arrival | ||
| City | Time | City | Time |
B | 8:00 am | A | 3:00 pm |
A | 4:00 pm | B | 8:00 pm |
Assume that planes cruise at the same speed in both directions. However, the effective speed influenced by a steady wind blowing from east to west at 50 km per hour.
11. What is the time difference between A and B?
(1) I hour and 30 minutes
(2) 2 hours
(3) 2 hours and 30 minutes
(4) 1 hour
(5) Cannot be determined
Solution:
The distance between 2 cities is 3000 km and A is located in the west. Let the time difference be y hrs.
From city B to A, the departure is at 8.00am and the arrival is at 3.00 pm.
Let the speed of the planes be x km/hr
So, 3000 / (x – 50) = 7 – y …(1)
Where 7 hrs the time taken from B to A
Now, 3000/(x + 50) = 4 + y …(2)
On solving equations (1) & (2), we get y = 1 hr
Hence the answer is option (4).
12. What is the plane's cruising speed in km per hour?
(1) 700 (2) 550 (3) 600 (4) 500 (5) Cannot be determined.
Solution:
Again by solving equations (1) & (2), we get the value of x = 550 km/hr as the speed.
Hence, the correct option is (2).
Directions for Questions 13 and 14:
Shabnam is considering three alternatives to invest her surplus cash for a week. She wishes to guarantee maximum returns on her investment. She has three options, each of which can be utilized fully or partially in conjunction with others.
Option A: Invest in a public sector bank. It promises a return of +0.10%.
Option B: Invest in mutual funds of ABC Ltd. A rise in the stock market will result in a return of +5%, while a fall will entail a return of -3%.
Option C: Invest in mutual funds of CBA Ltd. A rise in the stock market will result in a return of -2.5%, while a fall will entail a return of +2%.
13. The maximum guaranteed return to Shabnam is
(1) 0.25% (2) 0.10% (3) 0.20% (4) 0.15% (5) 0.30%
14. What strategy will maximize the guaranteed return to Shabnam?
(1)100 % in option A
(2) 36 % in option B and 64% in option C
(3) 64 % in option B and 36% in option C
(4) 1/3 in each of the three options
(5) 30 % in option A, 32% in option B and 38% in option C
Solution:
Consider the total amount to be 100.
(i) 100% in option A
In A, the return is +0.10%.
Return =0.1
(ii) 36% in option B and 64% in option C
Option rise fall
B +5% -3%
C -2.5% +2%
1st - 36*5/100 +(-)*64/100 =1.8-1.6=0.2
2nd - 36*(-)3/100+64*2/100 =-1.08+1.28=0.2
(iii) 64% in option B, 36% in option C
1st - 64*5/100 +(-2.5)*36/100=3.2-0.9=1.3
2nd - 64*(-)3/100+36*2/100=-1.92+0.72=-0.2
(iv) 1/3 in each of the 3 options
Rise - 100*0.1/3*100+100*5/3*100+100*(-2.5)/3*100=0.86
Fall - 100*.1/3*100+100*(-3)/3*100+100*2/3*100=-0.3
(v) 30% in option A, 32% in B and 38% in option C
Rise - 30*0.1/100+32*5/100+38*(-2.5)/100=0.68
Fall - 30*0.1/100+32(-3)/100+38*2/100=-0.17
13. The maximum guaranteed return =0.20%
Hence the answer is option (3).
14 The maximum guaranteed return of 0.20 is given by the strategy when she invests 36% in option B and 64% in option C.
Hence the answer is option (2).
Directions for Questions 15 and 16:
Let S he the set of all pairs (i,j) where 
Any two distinct members of S are called "friends" if they have one constituent of the pairs in common and "enemies" otherwise. For example if n = 4, then S = {(1, 2), (1, 3), (I, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 4)}. Here, (1, 2) and (1, 3) are friends, (1, 2) and (2, 3) are also friends, but (1, 4) and (2, 3) are enemies.
15. For general n, how many enemies will each member of S have?
16. For general n, consider any two members of S that are friends. How many other members of S will be common friends of both these members?
Solution:
15. x = no. of enemies
n = 4 , x = 1
n = 5, x = 3
n = 6, x = 6
When we put the value of n, we get the corresponding value of x.
We see from the options that only 1/2 (n2 – 5n + 6) satisfies the given condition.
Hence the answer is option (4).
16. n = 4, z = 2
n = 5, z = 3
n = 6, z = 4
By putting the value of n, we get the corresponding value of z.
So by putting the value in the answer options, we get that option (n – 2) satisfies the given condition.
Hence the answer is option (4).
17. In a tournament, there are n teams T1, T2, ...,Tn, with n >5. Each team consists of k players, k > 3. The following pairs of teams have one player in common:
No other pair of teams has any player in common. How many players are participating in the tournament, considering all the n teams together?
Solution:
As the no. of teams n>5, let the number of teams be n.
One player is common in 2 teams.
Therefore the arrangement of players will be as given below:
(k-2) (k-2) (k-2) (k-2) (k-2) (k-2)
T1 T2 T3 T4 T5 T6
(1) (1) (1) (1) (1)
(1) represents the common player.
Therefore the total no. of players = (k-2)6 +6
If the no. of teams is n, the no. of players in each team is k
Total number of players
=(k-2)n +n
=n(k-2+1)
=n(k-1)
Hence the answer is option (1).
18. Consider four digit numbers for which the first two digits are equal and the last two digits are also equal. How many such numbers are perfect squares?
(1)3 (2)2 (3)4 (4)0 (5)1
Solution:
Let the four digit number be XXYY i.e. 1000X + 100X + 10Y + Y
= 1100X + 11Y
= 11(100X + Y) is a perfect square
100X + Y is a multiple of 11.
99X + X + Y is a multiple of 11.
99X is a multiple of 11.
X +Y is a multiple of 11.
i.e. (2, 9) or (3, 8) or (4, 7) or (5, 6)
11 * 11 (9X + 1) is a perfect square.
9X + 1 should be a perfect square.
Only 9x + 1 should be a perfect square.
Y = 4
The number is 7744.
Hence the answer is option (5).
Directions for Questions 19 and 20:
Mr. David manufactures and sells a single product at a fixed price in a niche market. The selling price of each unit is Rs. 30. On the other hand, the cost, in rupees, of producing x units is 240 + bx + cx 2 where b and c are some constants. Mr. David noticed that doubling the daily production from 20 to 40 units increases the daily production cost by 
However, an increase in daily production from 40 to 60 units results in an increase of only 50% in the daily production cost. Assume that demand is unlimited and that Mr. David can sell as much as he can produce. His objective is to maximize the profit.
19. How many units should Mr. David produce daily?
(1) 130 (2) 100 (3) 70 (4) 150 (5) Cannot be determined
20. What is the maximum daily profit, in rupees, that Mr. David can realize from his business?
(1) 620 (2) 920 (3) 840 (4) 760 (5) Cannot be determined
Solution:
19. The cost is given as 240 + bx + cx2
When the units increase from 20 to 40, the % rise in cost is 66 2/3% = 2/3
At 20 units, the cost = 240 + 20b + 400c.
At 40 units, the cost = 240 + 40b + 1600c
As the cost increases by 2/3,
5/3 (240 + 20b + 400c) = 240 + 40b + 1600c …(1)
Similarly
When units increase from 40 to 60, the % rise in cost is 50%
3/2 (240 + 40b + 1600c) = 240 + 60b +3600 …(2)
By solving equations (1) & (2), we get
b= 10, c = 1/10
The cost equation becomes 240 + 10x + x2 /10.
The selling price per unit is Rs. 30.
Therefore the profit we can obtain by selling x units is 30x-(240 + 10x + x2 /10)
Solving this, we get the maximum value of this expression is Rs. 760 which is obtained at x=100 units.
Hence the answer is option (2).
20. Maximum profit = Rs.760, daily.
Hence the answer is option (4).
21. The price of Darjeeling tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 100 + 0.10n, on the n th day of 2007 (n = 1, 2, ..., 100), and then remains constant. On the other hand, the price of Ooty tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 89 + 0.15n, on the nth day of 2007 (n = I, 2, ..., 365). On which date in 2007 will the prices of these two varieties of tea be equal?
(1) May 21 (2) April 11 (3) May 20 (4) April 10 (5) June 30
Solution:
Price of Darjeeling tea = 100+ 0.10n on the nth day (n = 1, 2, 3, ………100)
Price of Ooty tea = 89 + .015n on the nth day (n = 1, 2, …………365)
For Darjeeling tea, the price after the100th day remains constant.
Price of Darjeeling tea after 100 days = 100 + 0.1 * 100 = Rs.110
We have to find on which day both have the same price.
So 110 = 89 + 0.15n
21 = 0.15n
n = 140th day of the year 2007
140th day of 2007 is 20th May
Hence the correct option is (3).
22. Two circles with centres P and Q cut each other at two distinct points A and B. The circles have the same radii and neither P nor Q falls within the intersection of the circles. What is the smallest range that includes all possible values of the angle AQP in degrees?
(1) Between 0 and 90
(2) Between 0 and 30
(3) Between 0 and 60
(4) Between 0 and 75
(5) Between 0 and 45
Solution:
Two circles with centers P & Q of the same radius cut each other at A & B.
When these 2 circles intersect, the value of angle AQP is greater than zero.
Now it is given that neither P nor Q falls within the intersection of the circles.
When P & Q are at the circumference of the circles, triangle PAQ is an equilateral triangle.
So the value of angle AQP is 60°.
So the range of angle AQP is between O and 60.
Hence the answer is option (3).
23. A quadratic function f(x) attains a maximum of 3 at x = 1. The value of the function at x = 0 is 1. What is the value of f(x) at x = 10?
(1)-119 (2)-159 (3)-110 (4)-180 (5)-105
Solution:
In the quadratic equation
ax2 + bx + c = 0 …(1)
at x = 0, c = 1; substitute the values in equation (1).
ax2 + bx + 1 = 0
For the maximum value
-b/2a = 1 and 4ac-b2/4a = 3
Now for the values of a and b
4a – b2 = 12a
b2 = - 8a
4a2 = - 8a
a = - 2
-b = 2a
b = - 2a
So, b = +4
Putting the values of a, b, c in the equation,
f (x) = ax2 + bx + c and x = 10
We get
- 2x2 + 4x + 1
- 159
Hence the correct option is (2).
Directions for Questions 24 and 25:
24. Which of the following best describes an + bn for even n ?
25. If 
then what is the smallest odd n such that an + bn <0.01>
(1)7 (2)13 (3)11 (4)9 (5)15
Solution:
24. Going by the answer options for n = 2, a2 + b2 = pq + q2
Option (1) q(pq)n/2-1 (pq) = pq + q2
Option (2) qpn/2-1 (p + d) = qp + q2
Option (3) qn/2(p + q) = qp + q2
Option (4) qn/2 (p + q)n /2 = qp +q2
Option (5) qp + q2
For n = 4 a4 +b4 = p2q2 + pq3
Option (1) q(pq) (p + q) = p2q2 + pq3
Option (2) qp (p + q)
Option (3) pq2 + q3
Option (4) q2 ( p + q)2
Option (5) q(pq) (p + q)2 = pq2 (p + q)2
Only option (1) best describes an + bn for even (n).
Hence the answer is option (1).
25. When you solve for odd value of n, an + bn< 0.01 at n = 9
Hence the correct option is (4).
Logic & Data Interpretation
This section contains 25 questions
Directions for Questions 26 to 29: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A health company's R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q. R. and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is 0: 150, P: 50, Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.
Ingredient | Composition | |||
Carbohydrate
| Protein
| Fat
| Minerals
| |
O | 50 | 30 | 10 | 10 |
P | 80 | 20 | 0 | 0 |
Q | 10 | 30 | 50 | 10 |
R | 5 | 50 | 40 | 5 |
S | 45 | 50 | 0 | 5 |
26. For a recuperating patient, the doctor recommended a diet containing 10% minerals and at least 30% protein. In how many different ways can we prepare this diet by mixing at least two ingredients?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) None
Solutions:
Given that 10% minerals, greater than or equal to 30% protein.
For 10% minerals, we can eliminate P, R and S. The only combination left is O and Q, which also satisfies the criterion of at least 30% protein.
Hence, the correct option is (1).
27. Which among the following is the formulation having the lowest cost per unit for a diet having 10% fat and at least 30% protein? The diet has to be formed by mixing two ingredients.
(1) P and Q (2) P and S (3) P and R (4) Q and S (5) R and S
Solutions:
To find out the lowest cost per unit for a diet having10% Fat, greater than or equal to 30% protein and exactly two ingredients:
If we go by the options, we can eliminate option (1)- P and Q- because it has less than 30% protein.
We can eliminate option (2)- P and S- since it has less than 10% Fat. The other three options fulfill both the criteria. So, we have to check for the lowest cost. Now options (3) and (5) include R which costs 500. Hence, the correct option is (4).
28. In what proportion P, Q and S should be mixed to make a diet having at least 60% carbohydrate at the lowest per unit cost?
(1) 2:1:3 (2) 4:1:2 (3) 2:1:4 (4) 3:1:2 (5) 4:1:1
Solutions:
To mix P, Q and S to make a diet having at least 60% carbohydrate:
% carbohydrate, P = 80, Q = 10, S = 45
If P : Q: S
l: m: n
% Carbohydate, 80l + 10m + 45n/l+m+n
Option (1) 2:1:3
(160+10+135)/6 = 295/6 <>
Option (2)
(320 + 10 +90)/7 = 420/7 =60%
Option (3)
(160+10+180)/7 = 350/7 = 50%
Option (4)
(240+10+90)/7 = 340/7 <>
Option (5)
(320+10+45)/6 = 375/6 > 60%
Hence options (1), (3) and (4) are eliminated. Now we have to check (2) and (5) for the lowest cost.
Cost P = 50 , Q = 200 , S = 100
Option (2) 4:1:2
200+200+200/7 = 600/7 = 85.7
Option (5) 4:1:1
200+200+100/6 = 500/6 = 83.33
Hence the correct option is (5).
29. The company is planning to launch a balanced diet required for growth needs of adolescent children. This diet must contain at least 30% each of carbohydrate and protein, no more than 25% fat and at least 5% minerals. Which one of the following combinations of equally mixed ingredients is feasible?
(1) O and P (2) R and S (3) P and S (4) Q and R (5) O and S
Solutions:
Option (1), O and P, is low in protein, hence eliminated.
Option (2), R and S, is low in carbohydrates, hence eliminated.
Option (3), P and S, is low in minerals, hence eliminated.
Option (4), Q and R, is low in carbohydrates, hence eliminated.
Hence the correct option is (5).
Directions for Questions 30 to 33: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
30. In a particular school, sixty students were athletes. Ten among them were also among the top academic performers. How many top academic performers were in the school?
A. Sixty per cent of the top academic performers were not athletes.
B. All the top academic performers were not necessarily athletes.
Solutions:
Athletes (and not topper) | Toppers (as well as Athletes) | Total |
50 | 10 | 60 |
Statement A is 40% of top academic performers were athletes.
i.e., 40% = 10
Therefore 100% = 10/40 * 100 = 100/4 = 25
Hence statement A is sufficient.
Statement B does not give any quantity, so it is not sufficient.
Hence the correct option is (1).
31. Five students Atul, Bala, Chetan, Dev and Ernesto were the only ones who participated in a quiz contest. They were ranked based on their scores in the contest. Dcv got a higher rank as compared to Ernesto, while Bala got a higher rank as compared to Chetan. Chetan's rank was lower than the median. Who among the five got the highest rank?
A. Atul was the last rank holder.
B. Bala was not among the top two rank holders.
Solutions:
Rank: Dev>Ernesto & Bala > Chetan.
Chetan’s rank is either 4 or 5.
By statement A: Atul’s rank = 5
Therefore, Chetan’s rank = 4
Now, the top three are left.
Cases | |||
| Rank | I | II | III |
| 1
| D | D | B |
| 2 | E | B | D |
| 3 | B | E | E |
So B or D can be the topper.
Statement B: It says B is the third. So it is not sufficient.
So, by combining both the statements, only the 1st case is possible and D is the highest ranker.
Hence the correct option is (4).
32. Thirty per cent of the employees of a call centre are males. Ten per cent of the female employees have an engineering background. What is the percentage of male employees with engineering background?
A. Twenty five per cent of the employees have engineering background.
B. Number of male employees having an engineering background is 20% more than the number of female employees having an engineering background.
Solutions:
Let the total employees be 100.
Therefore, Male employees = 30
Female employees = 70
Female employees having engineering background = 7 (10% of total female employees)
Engineering Background | General Background | Total | |
Female | 7 | 63 | 70 |
| Male | x | y | 30 |
We have to find x.
Statement A: It says that 25 employees have engineering background
i.e., Male engineers = 25 - 7 = 18
From Statement B, total Female employees = 70
Therefore Male employees with engineering background = 7+20% of 70
= 7+14 = 21.
So either of the statements is sufficient.
Hence the correct option is (3).
33. In a football match, at the half-time, Mahindra and Mahindra Club was trailing by three goals. Did it win the match?
A. In the second-half Mahindra and Mahindra Club scored four goals.
B. The opponent scored four goals in the match.
Solutions:
After half time, two cases are formed:
Case I
Mahindra = 0 Opponent = 3
Case II
Mahindra = 1 Opponent = 4
Considering Statement A:
Scores after the 2nd half:
Case I
Mahindra = 4 Opponent = 3/4/5
Considering Statement B:
Scores after the 2nd half :
Case I
Mahindra = 4 Opponent = 4
Case II
Mahindra = 5 Opponent = 4
Consider Case I result is a draw, while from case II Mahindra wins.
Thus, the exact answer can’t be estimated even by combining both the statements.
Hence the correct option is (5).
Directions for Questions 34 to 37 :
Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product:
Year 2002 | Year 2003 | Year 2004 | Year 2005 | Year 2006 | |
| Volume of production and sale (units) | 1000 | 900 | 1100 | 1200 | 1200 |
| Costs (Rs.) | |||||
| Material | 50,000 | 45,100 | 55,200 | 59,900 | 60,000 |
| Labour | 20,000 | 18,000 | 22,100 | 24,150 | 24,000 |
| Consumables | 2,000 | 2,200 | 1,800 | 1,600 | 1,400 |
| Rent of Building | 1,000 | 1,000 | 1,100 | 1,100 | 1,200 |
| Rates and taxes | 400 | 400 | 400 | 400 | 400 |
| Repair and maintenance expenses | 800 | 820 | 780 | 790 | 800 |
| Operating cost of machines | 30,000 | 27,000 | 33,500 | 36,020 | 36,000 |
| Selling and marketing expenses | 5,750 | 5,800 | 5,800 | 5,750 | 5,800 |
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions:
34. What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, if the company produces and sells 1400 units in the year 2007?
(1) 104 (2) 107 (3) 110 (4) 115 (5) 116
35. What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any loss?
(1) 313 (2) 350 (3) 384 (4) 747 (5) 928
36. If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. How many units the company should produce to maximize its profit?
(1) 1400 (2) 1600 (3) 1800 (4) 1900 (5) 2000
37. Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce the price by Rs.5 for all units, if it wants to sell more than 1400 units, what is the maximum profit, in rupees, that the company can earn?
(1) 25,400 (2) 24,400 (3) 31,400 (4) 32,900 (5) 32,000
Solution 34 to 37:
We can easily observe from the data given that Material Cost, Labour Cost and Operating cost of the machine are varying directly as the number of units produced and all the other costs are to be taken as fixed because they are not following any particular trend. Accordingly we can solve the given questions.
For 2007
Year 2007
| |
| Volume
| 1400 |
| Costs
| |
| Material
| 70,000 (1400 x 50) |
| Labour
| 28,000 (1400 x 20) |
| Consumables
| 1,400 (Fixed) |
| Rent of Building
| 1,200 (Fixed) |
| Rates and Taxes
| 400 (Fixed) |
| Repair and Maintenance Expenses | 800 (Fixed) |
| Operating Cost of Machines
| 42,000 (1400 x 30) |
| Selling and Marketing Expenses
| 5, 800 (Fixed) |
| Total | 149600 |
Hence the answer is option (2).
35. Suppose the number of units produced in the year 2007 is x. Then
Cost price = 50x + 20x + 30x + 9600 (Sum of all the fixed costs involved)
= 100x + 9600
Selling Price = 125x
For no profit no loss
100x + 9600 = 125x
25x = 9600
x = 384
Hence the answer is option (3).
36. Price reduced by 5% from 125 i.e. the new price would be 118.75. Suppose the number of units is x. Then
Profit = Selling Price – Cost Price
= 118.75x – (100x + 9600)
= 18.75x – 9600
So the profit will be the maximum when the value of x is the maximum.
Hence the answer is option (5).
37. If a Company sells 1400 units its profit is 1400X125-149600 = 25400.
If a Company sells 1700 units its profit is 1700X120-(100X1700+9600) = 24400
Therefore maximum profit = 25400. Hence the answer is option (1).
Directions for Questions 38 to 41: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below. The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
Male (M) | Vegetarian (V) | |
| Class 12 | 0.60 | |
| Class 11 | 0.55 | 0.50 |
| Secondary Section | 0.55 | |
| Total | 0.475 | 0.53 |
38. What is the percentage of male students in the secondary section?
(1) 40 (2) 45 (3) 50 (4) 55 (5) 60
39. In Class 12, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians?
(1) less than 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14 (5) 16
40. What is the percentage of vegetarian students in Class 12?
(1) 40 (2) 45 (3) 50 (4) 55 (5) 60
41. In the Secondary Section, 50% of the students are vegetarian males. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Except vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of students.
(2) Except non-vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of students.
(3) Except vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of students.
(4) Except non-vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of students.
(5) All of the above groups have the same number of students.
Solution 38 to 41:
M
| V | |
Class12 | 0.60 | - |
Class11 | 0.55 | 0.5 |
Secondary Section | - | 0.55 |
Total | 0.475 | 0.55 |
Total number of students = 800
It is given that 80% are in the Secondary Section.(SS)
Therefore Secondary section = 800 * 80% = 640.
The rest of the students are divided equally between Class 11 and 12.
Therefore Class 12 = Class 11 = 80.
Class 12 : 60% of 80 are Males = 48
Therefore Females = 32
Class 11 : 55% of 80 are males = 44
Therefore Females = 36
Total males = 0.475 of 800 = 380
Therefore Males in the Second section = 380 – 48 – 44 = 288
Vegetarian Students
Class 11 : 50% of 80
Non veg = 40 (Class 11)
= 40 (Veg)
Secondary Section = 55% of 640
Therefore 352 (Veg)
Therefore Non Veg = 640 – 352 = 288 (N.V)
Total Veg = 53% of 800 = 424
Class 12, Vegetarian = 424 – 352 - 40 = 32.
38. In the Secondary section, 288 students are male.
So % would be 288/640 *100 = 45%
Hence the answer is option (2).
39. Total veg = 32.
Out of this, 25% are males = 8
So the remaining 24 are females.
Total number of male students = 48
Out of this, 8 male students are veg.
So 48 – 8 = 40 male students will be non veg
The difference between female veg & male non-veg students= 40 – 24 = 16.
Hence the answer is option (5).
40. The required percentage is
32/80 * 100 = 40%
Hence the correct option is (1).
41. If we take language of this question as ‘50% of male students of secondary section are vegetarian’,
then 144 (M) students are veg.
144 (M) students are non-veg.
So the no. of females who are veg = 352 – 144 = 208
No. of females who are non-Veg = 144.
Hence the correct option is (3).
Directions for Questions 42 to 45: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
| Procedure | Comparative Costs in USA and some Asian countries (in US dollars) | |||||
| USA | India | Thailand | Singapore | Malaysia | ||
| 130000 | 10000 | 11000 | 18500 | 9000 | |
| 160000 | 9000 | 10000 | 12500 | 9000 | |
| Angioplasty | 57000 | 11000 | 13000 | 13000 | 11000 | |
| Hip Replacement | 43000 | 9000 | 12000 | 12000 | 10000 | |
| Hysterectomy | 20000 | 3000 | 4500 | 6000 | 3000 | |
| Knee Replacement | 40000 | 8500 | 10000 | 13000 | 8000 | |
| Spinal Fusion | 62000 | 5500 | 7000 | 9000 | 6000 | |
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:
1 US Dollar Equivalent | ||
| India | 40.928 | Rupees |
| Malaysia | 3.51 | Ringits |
| Thailand | 32.89 | Bahts |
| Singapore | 1.53 | S Dollars |
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. The poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
| Procedure | Comparative Costs in USA and some Asian countries (in US dollars) | |||||
| USA | India | Thailand | Singapore | Malaysia | ||
| 0 | 3 | 3 | 2 | 4 | |
| 0 | 5 | 4 | 5 | 5 | |
| Angioplasty | 0 | 5 | 5 | 4 | 6 | |
| Hip Replacement | 0 | 7 | 5 | 5 | 8 | |
| Hysterectomy | 0 | 5 | 6 | 5 | 4 | |
| Knee Replacement | 0 | 9 | 6 | 4 | 4 | |
| Spinal Fusion | 0 | 5 | 6 | 5 | 6 | |
42. A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and a knee replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the government will take care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package, taking cost of poor quality into account?
(1) India (2) Thailand (3) Malaysia (4) Singapore (5) USA
43. Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most expensive for knee replacement?
(1) India (2) Thailand (3) Malaysia (4) Singapore (5) India and Singapore
44. Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? It costs 7500 Bahts for one-way travel between Thailand and India.
(1) 23500 (2) 40500 (3) 57500 (4) 67500 (5) 75000
45. The rupee value increases to Rs.35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including quality, remain the same. What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion, taking this change into account?
(1) 700 (2) 2500 (3) 4500 (4) 8000 (5) No difference
Solution 42 to 45:
42. Cost of angioplasty, hip replacement and knee replacement of all countries taking cost of poor quality into consideration,
For India – (11000 + 9000 + 8500) + 21000 = 49500
For Malaysia – (11000 + 10000 + 8000) + 18000 = 47000
Hence Malaysia is the cheapest.
Hence the correct answer is (3).
43. For knee replacement, the cost incurred in USD for various countries are
India = 17500
Thailand = 16000
Singapore = 17000
Malaysia = 12000
Hence, India is the most expensive.
Hence the correct answer is (1).
44. Hysterectomy done in Thailand will cost 4500 + 6000 = 10500 USD
Hysterectomy done in India will cost 3000 + 5000 = 8000 USD
So the difference in Thai Bahts = 2500 x 33 = 82500 Bahts (Approx.)
He will have to travel from Thailand to India and back which will cost him 15000 Bahts.
So the required difference = 82500 – 15000 = 67500.
Hence the correct answer is (4).
45. The cost incurred in Spinal Fusion in India and Singapore is 5500 and 9000 USD respectively. (Cost of poor quality is not added as it is not mentioned in the question.)
But in India 1USD = 40.928 Rs.
So 5500 USD = (5500 x 40.928)
Now we are given 1USD = 35 Rs
Therefore, the cost of the same will now be (5500 x 40.928)/ 35 = 6500 USD
So the required difference is (9000 – 6500) = 2500 USD
Hence the correct answer is (2).
Directions for Questions 46 to 50: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
Sector
No. | Airport of Departure | Airport of Arrival | Distance between the Airports
(km) | Price (Rs.) |
1 | A | B | 560 | 670 |
2 | A | C | 790 | 1350 |
3 | A | D | 850 | 1250 |
4 | A | E | 1245 | 1600 |
5 | A | F | 1345 | 1700 |
6 | A | G | 1350 | 2450 |
7 | A | H | 1950 | 1850 |
8 | B | C | 1650 | 2000 |
9 | B | H | 1750 | 1900 |
10 | B | I | 2100 | 2450 |
11 | B | J | 2300 | 2275 |
12 | C | D | 460 | 450 |
13 | C | F | 410 | 430 |
14 | C | G | 910 | 1100 |
15 | D | E | 540 | 590 |
16 | D | F | 625 | 700 |
17 | D | G | 640 | 750 |
18 | D | H | 950 | 1250 |
19 | D | J | 650 | 2450 |
20 | E | F | 1250 | 1700 |
21 | E | G | 970 | 1150 |
22 | E | H | 850 | 875 |
23 | F | G | 900 | 1050 |
24 | F | I | 875 | 950 |
25 | F | J | 970 | 1150 |
26 | G | I | 510 | 550 |
27 | G | J | 830 | 890 |
28 | H | I | 790 | 970 |
29 | H | J | 400 | 425 |
30 | I | J | 460 | 540 |
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
46. What is the lowest price, in rupees, a passenger has to pay for travelling by the shortest route from A to J?
(1) 2275 (2) 2850 (3) 2890 (4) 2930 (5) 3340
47. The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market research results indicate that all its existing passengers traveling between A and J will use this direct flight if it is priced 5% below the minimum price that they pay at present. What should the company charge approximately, in rupees, for this direct flight?
(1)1991 (2) 2161 (3) 2707 (4) 2745 (5) 2783
48. If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons, what would be the minimum price, in rupees, to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J?
(1) 2275 (2) 2615 (3) 2850 (4) 2945 (5) 3190
49. If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the company incurs, what is the minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J?
(1) 0.77 (2) 0.88 (3) 0.99 (4) 1.06 (5) 1.08
50. If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs, which among the following is the distance to be covered in flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost per kilometer for the company?
(1) 2170 (2) 2180 (3) 2315 (4) 2350 (5) 2390
Solution 46 to 50:
46. The shortest route from A to J is A – C – F – J i-e 2170km. The required price is
Route | Distance | Fare |
A – C | 790 | 1350 |
C – F | 410 | 430 |
F - J | 970 | 1150 |
Total | 2170 | 2930 |
47. The minimum price for traveling from A to J is Rs. 2275 through route A – H – J
5% of 2275 = 113.5
So the company should charge 2275-113.5 = 2161
Hence the correct option is (2).
48. The possible route from A to J when C, D and H are closed down:
| Routes with one airport in between | Routes with two airport in between | ||
| Routes
| Fare
| Routes
| Fare
|
A – B – J | 670+2275 = 2945 | A – B –I – J | 3660 |
A – F – J | 1700+1150 = 2850 | A – F – I – J | 3190 |
A – G – J | 2450+890 = 3340 | A – G – I – J | 3540 |
A – E – F – J | 4450 | ||
A – E – G – I | 3300 | ||
Hence the correct option is (3).
49. The minimum price to travel from A to J through the shortest route A-H-J (2350Km) is Rs.2275.
Therefore the total cost that the company incurs = 2047.5
Therefore cost per kilometer = 2047.5/2275 = 0.88
Hence the correct option is (2).
50. Refer to question 49.
The minimum price for the shortest distance = 2275 Rs.
The shortest distance A-H-J = 2350Km.
Hence the correct answer option is (4).
Verbal Ability
this section contains 25 questions
Directions for Questions 51 to 53: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Human Biology does nothing to structure human society. Age may enfeeble us all, but cultures vary considerably in the prestige and power they accord to the elderly. Giving birth is a necessary condition for being a mother, but it is not sufficient. We expect mothers to behave in maternal ways and to display appropriately maternal sentiments. We prescribe a clutch of norms or rules that govern the role of a mother. That the social role is independent of the biological base can be demonstrated by going back three sentences. Giving birth is certainly not sufficient to be a mother but, as adoption and fostering show, it is not even necessary!
The fine detail of what is expected of a mother or a father or a dutiful son differs from culture to culture, but everywhere behaviour is coordinated by the reciprocal nature of roles. Husbands and wives, parents and children, employers and employees, waiters and customers, teachers and pupils, warlords and followers; each makes sense only in its relation to the other. The term ‘role’ is an appropriate one, because the metaphor of an actor in a play neatly expresses the rule-governed nature or scripted nature of much of social life and the sense that society is a joint production. Social life occurs only because people play their parts (and that is as true for war and conflicts as for peace and love) and those parts make sense only in the context of the overall show. The drama metaphor also reminds us of the artistic licence available to the players. We can play a part straight or, as the following from J.P. Sartre conveys, we can ham it up.
Let us consider this waiter in the café. His movement is quick and forward, a little too precise, a little too rapid. He comes towards the patrons with a step a little too quick. He bends forward a little too eagerly; his voice, his eyes express an interest a little too solicitous for the order of the customer. Finally there he returns, trying to imitate in his walk the inflexible stiffness of some kind of automaton while carrying his tray with the recklessness of a tightrope walker.... All his behaviour seems to us a game....But what is he playing? We need not watch long before we can explain it: he is playing at being a waiter in a café.
The American sociologist Erving Goffman built an influential body of social analysis on elaborations of the metaphor of social life as drama. Perhaps his most telling point was that it is only through acting out a part that we express character. It is not enough to be evil or virtuous; we have to be seen to be evil or virtuous.
There is distinction between the roles we play and some underlying self. Here we might note that some roles are more absorbing than others. We would not be surprised by the waitress who plays the part in such a way as to signal to us that she is much more than her occupation. We would be surprised and offended by the father who played his part ‘tongue in cheek’. Some roles are broader and more far-reaching than others. Describing someone as a clergyman or faith healer would say far more about that person than describing someone as a bus driver.
51. What is the thematic highlight of this passage?
(1) In the absence of strong biological linkages, reciprocal roles provide the mechanism for coordinating human behaviour.
(2) In the absence of reciprocal roles, biological linkages provide the mechanism for coordinating human behaviour.
(3) Human behaviour is independent of biological linkages and reciprocal roles.
(4) Human behaviour depends on biological linkages and reciprocal roles.
(5) Reciprocal roles determine normative human behaviour in society.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (5). Option (1), the very first sentence of the passage tells us that human biology does not determine the structure of society. Though this option is true, it is not the theme. It is only one example to consolidate the theme, which is, ‘social behaviour is determined by reciprocal roles’. Other examples are found in the first four lines of paragraph 2. The second paragraph further elaborates that reciprocal relationships determine human behaviour. Option (2) contradicts this point. Option (3) says human behaviour is independent of reciprocal roles, which is incorrect according to the passage. Option (4) says human behaviour depends on biological linkages, which is incorrect according to the passage. Option (5) correctly captures the theme of the passage.
52. Which of the following would have been true if biological linkages structured human society?
(1) The role of mother would have been defined through her reciprocal relationship with her children.
(2) We would not have been offended by the father playing his role ‘tongue in cheek’.
(3) Women would have adopted and fostered children rather than giving birth to them.
(4) Even if warlords were physically weaker than their followers, they would still dominate them.
(5) Waiters would have stronger motivation to serve their customers.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2). In the last paragraph, the author mentions that the roles humans play and the self are different. So, if a father does not play his role according to the expected behaviour, then this offends us. If only biological linkages structured human society, then we would not have had any expectations, and thus, the father’s behaviour would not have offended us. Option (1) does not specify whether the children are adopted or natural born. Option (3) contradicts the question asked. Option (4) - if the warlords were weaker than their followers and biology were the determining factor, they would not be able to dominate. Option (5) is irrelevant to the question asked.
53. It has been claimed in the passage that “some roles are more absorbing than others”. According to the passage, which of the following seem(s) appropriate reason(s) for such a claim?
A. Some roles carry great expectations from the society preventing manifestation of the true self.
B. Society ascribes so much importance to some roles that the conception of self may get aligned with the roles being performed.
C. Some roles require development of skill and expertise leaving little time for manifestation of self.
(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) A & B (5) B & C
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (1). The last paragraph suggests that the underlying self may not always be the same as the role one performs. For example, the father needs to conform to expected behavioural standards instead of expressing his true self, otherwise we would be offended. Thus, it would be a reason behind this argument. The passage does not mention the conception of self. Thus, sentence B cannot be a reason for the given argument. The passage does not mention skill and expertise, thus we can also eliminate sentence C.
Directions for Questions 54 to 56: In each question, there are five sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.
54. A. When I returned to home, I began to read
B. everything I could get my hand on about Israel.
C. That same year Israel’s Jewish Agency sent
D. a Shaliach a sort of recruiter to Minneapolis.
E. I became one of his most active devotees.
(1) C & E (2) C only (3) E only (4) B, C & E (5) C, D & E
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (3). Only E is appropriate. Sentence A uses the wrong preposition ‘to’. It should be ‘When I returned home’. In sentence B, the correct idiom is ‘to get one’s hands on something’. Sentence C needs a comma after ‘year’. Sentence D needs two commas, after ‘Shaliach’ and ‘recruiter’, since ‘a sort of recruiter’ is an appositive, giving us more information about the noun ‘Shaliach’.
55. A. So once an economy is actually in recession,
B. the authorities can, in principle, move the economy
C. out of slump - assuming hypothetically
D. that they know how to - by a temporary stimuli.
E. In the longer term, however, such policies have no affect on the overall behaviour of the economy.
(1) A, B & E (2) B, C & E (3) C & D (4) E only (5) B only
SOLUTION:
The answer is (5). B only. Sentence A needs a comma after ‘so.’ Sentence C needs an article before ‘slump.’ Also, ‘hypothetically’ is redundant, as the word ‘assuming’ has already been used. In sentence D, ‘by’ is an incorrect preposition. The correct one would be ‘through.’ Sentence E should either say ‘In the long run’ or ‘In the long term.’
56. A. It is sometimes told that democratic
B. government originated in the city-states
C. of ancient Greece. Democratic ideals have been handed to us from that time.
D. In truth, however, this is an unhelpful assertion.
E. The Greeks gave us the word, hence did not provide us with a model.
(1) A, B & D (2) B, C & D (3) B & D (4) B only (5) D only
SOLUTION:
The answer is (3). B and D. Sentence A should say ‘It is sometimes said,’ not ‘told.’ Sentence C needs ‘handed down to us.’ Sentence E is wrong because it uses ‘hence’ which is a supporting conjunction, whereas, the sentence needs a contrast indicator like ‘but’.
Directions for Questions 57 to 59: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Every civilized society lives and thrives on a silent but profound agreement as to what is to be accepted as the valid mould of experience. Civilization is a complex system of dams, dykes, and canals warding off, directing, and articulating the influx of the surrounding fluid element; a fertile fenland, elaborately drained and protected from the high tides of chaotic, unexercised, and inarticulate experience. In such a culture, stable and sure of itself within the frontiers of ‘naturalized’ experience, the arts wield their creative power not so much in width as in depth. They do not create new experience, but deepen and purify the old. Their works do not differ from one another like a new horizon from a new horizon, but like a madonna from a madonna.
The periods of art which are most vigorous in creative passion seem to occur when the established pattern of experience loosens its rigidity without as yet losing its force. Such a period was the Renaissance, and Shakespeare its poetic consummation. Then it was as though the discipline of the old order gave depth to the excitement of the breaking away, the depth of job and tragedy, of incomparable conquests and irredeemable losses. Adventurers of experience set out as though in lifeboats to rescue and bring back to the shore treasures of knowing and feeling which the old order had left floating on the high seas. The works of the early Renaissance and the poetry of Shakespeare vibrate with the compassion for live experience in danger of dying from exposure and neglect. In this compassion was the creative genius of the age. Yet, it was a genius of courage, not of desperate audacity. For, however elusively, it still knew of harbours and anchors, of homes to which to return, and of barns in which to store the harvest. The exploring spirit of art was in the depths of its consciousness still aware of a scheme of things into which to fit its exploits and creations.
But the more this scheme of things loses its stability, the more boundless and uncharted appears the ocean of potential exploration. In the blank confusion of infinite potentialities flotsam of significance gets attached to jetsam of experience; for everything is sea, everything is at sea —
...The sea is all about us;
The sea is the land’s edge also, the granite
Into which it reaches, the beaches where it tosses
Its hints of earlier and other creation ...
- and Rilke tells a story in which, as in T.S. Eliot’s poem, it is again the sea and the distance of ‘other creation’ that becomes the image of the poet’s reality. A rowing boat sets out on a difficult passage. The oarsmen labour in exact rhythm. There is no sign yet of the destination. Suddenly a man, seemingly idle, breaks out into song. And if the labour of the oarsmen meaninglessly defeats the real resistance of the real waves, it is the idle single who magically conquers the despair of apparent aimlessness. While the people next to him try to come to grips with the element that is next to them, his voice seems to bind the boat to the farthest distance so that the farthest distance draws it towards itself. ‘I don’t know why and how,’ is Rilke’s conclusion, but suddenly I understood the situation of the poet, his place and function in this age. It does not matter if one denies him every place — except this one. There one must tolerate him.’
57. In the passage, the expression “like a madonna from a madonna” alludes to
(1) The difference arising as a consequence of artistic license.
(2) The difference between two artistic interpretations.
(3) The difference between ‘life’ and ‘interpretation of life’.
(4) The difference between ‘width’ and ‘depth’ of creative power.
(5) The difference between the legendary character and the modem day singer.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2). Refer to paragraph 1, lines 6 and 7. It says that arts wield their creative power in depth more than width. Arts do not create an entirely new experience but deepen and purify the old. A Madonna compared to another Madonna does not create anything new regarding art but will merely reflect the difference between two artistic interpretations or perceptions. Option (1) is irrelevant. Option (2) talks about life in a general perspective which is nowhere mentioned in the passage. Option (4) can be ruled out as it has been picked up directly from the passage, and does not explain what the phrase alludes to. Option (5) is an irrelevant option.
58. The sea and ‘other creation’ leads Rilke to
(1) Define the place of the poet in his culture.
(2) Reflect on the role of the oarsman and the singer.
(3) Muse on artistic labour and its aimlessness.
(4) Understand the elements that one has to deal with.
(5) Delve into natural experience and real waves.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (1). Refer to paragraph 3, last two lines. The author gives the example of sea and ‘other creation’ and reaches the conclusion… ‘but suddenly I understood the situation the poet, his place and function in this age’ which in other words is the poet’s place in his culture. Option (2) is irrelevant and can be ruled out. Nowhere in the passage is the author talking about the aimlessness of artistic labour (refer 2nd and 3rdline of the 3rd paragraph). Option (4) can be ruled out as it is a very general statement. The passage is dealing with artists and poets in particular and not with the general public. Option (5) is irrelevant and so can be eliminated.
59. According to the passage, the term “adventurers of experience” refers to
(1) Poets and artists who are driven by courage.
(2) Poets and artists who create their own genre.
(3) Poets and artists of the Renaissance.
(4) Poets and artists who revitalize and enrich the past for us.
(5) Poets and artists who delve in flotsam and jetsam at sea.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (4). Refer to paragraph 2, lines 6 and 7, which refer to poets and artists who revitalize and enrich the past for us. Option (1) can be ruled out as it deals with poets and artists of only the Renaissance age. Option (2) is irrelevant and is not referred to in the passage. Option (3) also can be ruled out as the Renaissance age is given as an example for the existence of the ‘adventurers of experience’. Option (5) is also irrelevant and does not make any sense.
Directions for Questions 60 to 62: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
60.
Characters are also part of deep structure. Characters tie events in a story together and provide a thread of continuity and meaning. Stories can be about individuals, groups, projects, or whole organizations so from an organizational studies perspective, the focal actor(s) determine the level and unit of analysis used in a study. Stories of mergers and acquisitions, for example, are commonplace. In these stories whole organizations are personified as actors. But these macro-level stories usually are not told from the perspective of the macro-level participants, because whole organizations cannot narrate their experiences in the first person.
(1) More generally, data concerning the identities and relationships of the characters in the story are required, if one is to understand role structure and social networks in which that process is embedded.
(2) Personification of a whole organization abstracts away from the particular actors and from traditional notions of level of analysis.
(3) The personification of a whole organization is important because stories differ depending on who is enacting various events.
(4) Every story is told from a particular point of view, with a particular narrative voice, which is not regarded as part of the deep structure.
(5) The personification of a whole organization is a textual device we use to make macro-level theories more comprehensible.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (5). The last line tells us that organizations have to be personified because they cannot narrate their own stories. Thus, personification simplifies the narration and makes their stories more comprehensible. The other answer options are irrelevant to the points mentioned in the passage, and thus can be eliminated.
61.
Nevertheless, photographs still retain some of the magical allure that the earliest daguerreotypes inspired. As objects, our photographs have changed; they have become physically flimsier as they have become more technologically sophisticated. Daguerre produced pictures on copper plates; today many of our photographs never become tangible things, but instead remain filed away on computers and cameras, part of the digital ether that envelops the modern world. At the same time, our patience for the creation of images has also eroded. Children today are used to being tracked from birth by digital cameras and video recorders and they expect to see the results of their poses and performances instantly. The space between life as it is being lived and life as it is being displayed shrinks to a mere second.
(1) Yet, despite these technical developments, photographs still remain powerful because they are reminders of the people and things we care about.
(2) Images, after all, are surrogates carried into battle by a soldier or by a traveller on holiday.
(3) Photographs, be they digital or traditional, exist to remind us of the absent, the beloved, and the dead.
(4) In the new era of the digital image, the images also have a greater potential for fostering falsehood and trickery, perpetuating fictions that seem so real we cannot tell the difference.
(5) Anyway, human nature being what it is, little time has passed after photography’s invention became means of living life through images.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (1). The first line of the paragraph mentions that photographs retain some of their magical allure. The paragraph compares other types of images with photographs describing how photographs are better than others. The only answer option that relates to this point is option (1), which says something positive about photographs. Option (2) introduces information not mentioned in the passage. Option (3) mentions the similarity between photographs and other images, whereas the paragraph suggests contrast. Option (4) mentions “falsehood and trickery” which are irrelevant to the paragraph. Option (5) is also irrelevant to the main idea of the paragraph.
62.
Mma Ramotswe had a detective agency in Africa, at the foot of Kgale Hill. These were its assets: a tiny white van, two desks, two chairs, a telephone, and an old typewriter. Then there was a teapot, in which Mma Ramotswe - the only private lady detective in Botswana - brewed redbush tea. And three mugs - one for herself, one for her secretary, and one for the client. What else does a detective agency really need? Detective agencies rely on human intuition and intelligence, both of which Mma Ramotswe had in abundance.
(1) But there was also the view, which again would appear on no inventory.
(2) No inventory would ever include those, of course.
(3) She had an intelligent secretary too.
(4) She was a good detective and a good woman.
(5) What she lacked in possessions was more than made up by a natural shrewdness.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2). This answer option has the pronoun “those” which refers to “intuition and intelligence” mentioned in the paragraph. Option (1) mentions a “view” which has not been mentioned in the paragraph. Option (3) adds additional information to the paragraph. Option (4) is a judgment. The paragraph does not mention that she “lacked” possessions, thus it can be eliminated.
Directions for Questions 63 to 65: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
To discover the relation between rules, paradigms, and normal science, consider first how the historian isolates the particular loci of commitment that have been described as accepted rules. Close historical investigation of a given specialty at a given time discloses a set of recurrent and quasi-standard illustrations of various theories in their conceptual, observational, and instrumental applications. These are the community’s paradigms, revealed in its textbooks, lectures, and laboratory exercises. By studying them and by practicing with them, the members of the corresponding community learn their trade. The historian, of course, will discover in addition a penumbral area occupied by achievements whose status is still in doubt, but the core of solved problems and techniques will usually be clear. Despite occasional ambiguities, the paradigms of a mature scientific community can be determined with relative ease.
That demands a second step and one of a somewhat different kind. When undertaking it, the historian must compare the community’s paradigms with each other and with its current research reports. In doing so, his object is to discover what isolable elements, explicit or implicit, the members of that community may have abstracted from their more global paradigms and deploy it as rules in their research. Anyone who has attempted to describe or analyze the evolution of a particular scientific tradition will necessarily have sought accepted principles and rules of this sort. Almost certainly, he will have met with at least partial success. But, if his experience has been at all like my own, he will have found the search for rules both more difficult and less satisfying than the search for paradigms. Some of the generalizations he employs to describe the community’s shared beliefs will present more problems. Others, however, will seem a shade too strong. Phrased in just that way, or in any other way he can imagine, they would almost certainly have been rejected by some members of the group he studies. Nevertheless, if the coherence of the research tradition is to be understood in terms of rules, some specification of common ground in the corresponding area is needed. As a result, the search for a body of rules competent to constitute a given normal research tradition becomes a source of continual and deep frustration.
Recognizing that frustration, however, makes it possible to diagnose its source. Scientists can agree that a Newton, Lavoisier, Maxwell, or Einstein has produced an apparently permanent solution to a group of outstanding problems and still disagree, sometimes without being aware of it, about the particular abstract characteristics that make those solutions permanent. They can, that is, agree in their identification of a paradigm without agreeing on, or even attempting to produce, a full interpretation or rationalization of it. Lack of a standard interpretation or of an agreed reduction to rules will not prevent a paradigm from guiding research. Normal science can be determined in part by the direct inspection of paradigms, a process that is often aided by but does not depend upon the formulation of rules and assumption. Indeed, the existence of a paradigm need not even imply that any full set of rules exists.
63. What is the author attempting to illustrate through this passage?
(1) Relationships between rules, paradigms, and normal science
(2) How a historian would isolate a particular ‘loci of commitment’
(3) How a set of shared beliefs evolves into a paradigm
(4) Ways of understanding a scientific tradition
(5) The frustrations of attempting to define a paradigm of a tradition
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (5). What the question asks is NOT the theme of the passage, as one may wrongly interpret. We have to identify here, the author’s purpose. The theme of the passage is conveyed in option (1). But the author’s purpose of writing this passage is conveyed in option (5). The author refers twice to the frustrations of attempting to define a paradigm of tradition in the passage. He says that though it is relatively easy to agree in their identification of paradigms, it’s not that easy to characterize or define a paradigm. This is substantiated through the example of the great scientists. Refer to lines 4 to 6 of the 3rd paragraph, “They can, that is, agree in their identification of a paradigm without agreeing on, or even attempting to produce, a full interpretation or rationalization of it”. Though all other options are also referred to in the passage, option (5) the one that hits the nail on the head.
64. The term ‘loci of commitment’ as used in the passage would most likely correspond with which of the following?
(1) Loyalty between a group of scientists in a research laboratory
(2) Loyalty between groups of scientists across research laboratories
(3) Loyalty to a certain paradigm of scientific inquiry
(4) Loyalty to global patterns of scientific inquiry
(5) Loyalty to evolving trends of scientific inquiry
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (3). Refer to lines 2 to 4 of the 1st paragraph. From this reference, we can make out that ‘loci of commitment’ is nothing but paradigms i.e. recurrent and quasi-standard illustrations of various theories in their conceptual, observational, and instrumental applications. All other options are irrelevant.
65. The author of this passage is likely to agree with which of the following?
(1) Paradigms almost entirely define a scientific tradition.
(2) A group of scientists investigating a phenomenon would benefit by defining a set of rules.
(3) Acceptance by the giants of a tradition is a sine qua non for a paradigm to emerge.
(4) Choice of isolation mechanism determines the type of paradigm that may emerge from a tradition.
(5) Paradigms are a general representation of rules and beliefs of a scientific tradition.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (5). From the passage, it can be inferred that there are certain rules and beliefs of a scientific tradition which can be drawn from paradigms (by comparing the community’s paradigms with each other and with its current research report). Thus, the role of paradigm seems to be representing those accepted rules and beliefs. All other options do not seem to be the one to which author can agree with. Option (1) is too far-fetched, so can be ruled out. Option (2) can also be eliminated as the passage doesn’t support the thought of a group of scientists ‘benefiting’ by defining a set of rules. Option (3) which says that acceptance by the giants is essential for a paradigm, is an extreme inference. Hence, it can be ruled out. Option (4) can easily be eliminated as the passage doesn’t give any hint to the ‘types of paradigms’ which may emerge from scientific tradition.
Directions for Questions 66 to 68: In each question, there are four sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.
66.
The cricket council that was [A] / were [B] elected last March is [A] / are [B] at sixes and sevens over new rules.
The critics censored [A] / censured [B] the new movie because of its social unacceptability.
Amit’s explanation for missing the meeting was credulous [A] / credible [B]
She coughed discreetly [A] / discretely [B] to announce her presence.
(1) BBAAA (2) AAABA (3) BBBBA (4) AABBA (5) BBBAA
SOLUTION:
Rule: Collective nouns can be considered singular or plural depending on the context. When people do one thing “in unison” with the other members of their group, that noun becomes singular. As a result, you must use singular verbs and pronouns with it. However, when the members of a group are “acting as individuals”, the collective noun is plural and requires plural verbs and pronouns.
If there are two verbs in the sentence, one also needs to identify the principal verb in the sentence. All other verbs in any phrase modifying the noun will take the number which is assigned to the noun by the connotation of the principal verb.
In this case, ‘is [A] / are at sixes and sevens’, is the principal verb and pertains to the disagreement among the individual members of the council. Here, the council members are acting as individuals, that is, they are ‘at sixes and sevens’, meaning, ‘they do not agree’. Hence, the council, in this context, will be a plural noun.
Once identified as a plural noun, verbs in any phrase modifying the plural noun will be plural. ‘…that was/were elected last March’ is a modifying phrase. The verb will stand in agreement with the plural noun. Therefore, even ‘that was/were elected last March’ would take a plural verb.
Hence, the answer is option (3), BBBBA.
67.
The further [A] /farther [B] he pushed himself, the more disillusioned he grew.
For the crowds it was more of a historical [A] / historic [B] event; for their leader, it was just another day.
The old man has a healthy distrust [A] / mistrust [B] for all new technology. This film is based on a real [A] / true [B] story.
One suspects that the compliment [A] / complement [B] was backhanded
(1) BABAB (2) ABBBA (3) BAABA (4) BBAAB (5) ABABA
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2), ABBBA.
Statement 1- ‘Further’ in this context means to a great degree or extent. ‘Farther’ denotes distance.
Statement 2- ‘Historic’ means significant whereas ‘historical’ means connected with the past.
Statement 3- ‘Mistrust’ and ‘distrust’ are synonymous, but the latter is slightly stronger than the former. If you are sure that someone is acting dishonestly or cannot be relied on, you are more likely to say you ‘distrust’ them. If you are expressing doubts and suspicions, on the other hand, you would probably use ‘mistrust’. Also, distrust is always used with ‘of’ and mistrust with ‘for’.
Statement 4- When we refer to something connected with facts rather than things that have been invented or guessed we use ‘true’. ‘Real’ is used to refer to something that exists and is not imagined.
Statement 5- Compliment means praise whereas complement is something that completes. The compliment is backhanded means the compliment is indirect or ambiguous.
68.
Regrettably [A] / Regretfully [B] I have to decline your invitation.
I am drawn to the poetic, sensual [A] / sensuous [B] quality of her paintings.
He was besides [A] / beside [B] himself with age when I told him what I had done. After brushing against a stationary [A] / stationery [B] truck my car turned turtle.
As the water began to rise over [A] / above [B] the danger mark, the signs of an imminent flood were clear.
(1) BAABA (2) BBBAB (3) AAABA (4) BBAAB (5) BABAB
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2), BBBAB.
Statement 1- Regretfully means feeling or showing regret. Regrettably denotes something undesirable or unwelcome.
Statement 2- Sensual means depending on the senses whereas sensuous means aesthetically pleasing.
Statement 3- ‘Besides’ means in addition to. The usage ‘to be beside yourself with something’ means you are unable to control yourself because of the strength of emotion (here, rage) you are feeling.
Statement 4- ‘Stationary’ means motionless whereas ‘stationery’ stands for materials used for writing.
Statement 5- ‘Above’ shows ‘at or to a higher place or position than something’. ‘Over’ denotes movement or position beyond something stated or implied.
Directions for Questions 69 to 71: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
The difficulties historians face in establishing cause-and-effect relations in th history of human societies are broadly similar to the difficulties facing astronomers, climatologists. Ecologists, evolutionary biologists, geologists, and palaeontologists. To varying degrees each of these fields is plagued by the impossibility of performing replicated, controlled experimental interventions, the complexity arising from enormous numbers of variables, the resulting uniqueness of each system, the consequent impossibility of formulating universal laws, and the difficulties of predicting emergent properties and future behaviour. Prediction in history, as in other historical sciences, is most feasible on large spatial scales and over long times, when the unique features of millions of small-scale brief’ events become averaged out. Just as I could predict the sex ratio of the next 1,000 newborns but not the sexes of my own two children, the historian can recognize factors that made inevitable the broad outcome of the collision between American and Eurasian societies after 13,000 years of separate developments, but not the outcome of the 1960 U.S. presidential election. The details of which candidate said what during a single televised debate in October 1960 could have given the electoral victory to Nixon instead of to Kennedy, but no details of who said what could have blocked the European conquest of Native Americans.
How can students of human history profit from the experience of scientists in other historical sciences? A methodology that has proved useful involves the comparative method and so-called natural experiments. While neither astronomers studying galaxy formation nor human historians can manipulate their systems in controlled laboratory experiments, they both can take advantage of natural experiments, by comparing systems differing in the presence or absence (or in the strong or weak effect) of some putative causative factor. For example, epidemiologists, forbidden to feed large amounts of salt to people experimentally, have still been able to identify effects of high salt intake by comparing groups of humans who already differ greatly in their salt intake; and cultural anthropologists, unable to provide human groups experimentally with varying resource abundances for many centuries, still study long-term effects of resource abundance on human societies by comparing recent Polynesian populations living on islands differing naturally in resource abundance.
The student of human history can draw on many more natural experiments than just comparisons among the five inhabited continents. Comparisons can also utilize large islands that have developed complex societies in a considerable degree of isolation (such as Japan, Madagascar, Native American Hispaniola, New Guinea, Hawaii, and many others), as well as societies on hundreds of smaller islands and regional societies within each of the continents. Natural experiments in any field, whether in ecology or human history, are inherently open to potential methodological criticisms. Those include confounding effects of natural variation in additional variables besides the one of interest, as well as problems in inferring chains of causation from observed correlations between variables. Such methodological problems have been discussed in great detail for some of the historical sciences. In particular, epidemiology, the science of drawing inferences about human diseases by comparing groups of people (often by retrospective historical studies), has for a long time successfully employed formalized procedures for dealing with problems similar to those facing historians of human societies.
In short, I acknowledge that it is much more difficult to understand human history than to understand problems in fields of science where history is unimportant and where fewer individual variables operate. Nevertheless, successful methodologies for analyzing historical problems have been worked out in several fields. As a result, the histories of dinosaurs, nebulae, and glaciers are generally acknowledged to belong to fields of science rather than to the humanities.
69. Why do islands with considerable degree of isolation provide valuable insights into human history?
(1) Isolated islands may evolve differently and this difference is of interest to us.
(2) Isolated islands increase the number of observations available to historians.
(3) Isolated islands, differing in their endowments and size may evolve differently and this difference can be attributed to their endowments and size.
(4) Isolated islands, differing in their endowments and size, provide a good comparison to large islands such as Eurasia, Africa, Americas and Australia.
(5) Isolated islands, in so far as they are inhabited, arouse curiosity about how human beings evolved there.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (4). The question is about the role of isolated islands providing valuable insights into human history. This is possible only by comparing evolution in the isolated islands with that in the already evolved islands like Eurasia, Africa etc. Options (1) and (5) can be ruled out as they are specific to human history of isolated islands and do not talk about a comparison of any kind, which is the basis of the whole passage. The author is not discussing ‘evolution of communities’, he is discussing a methodology of analysing historical problems. Option (2), ‘increasing the number of observations’, is also not discussed in the passage and hence is irrelevant. Option (3) is also irrelevant, as why isolated islands differ in evolution is not discussed in the passage, only that these differences can be used as a comparison tool in understanding human history.
70. According to the author, why is prediction difficult in history?
(1) Historical explanations are usually broad so that no prediction is possible.
(2) Historical outcomes depend upon a large number of factors and hence prediction is difficult for each case.
(3) Historical sciences, by their very nature, are not interested in a multitude of minor factors, which might be important in a specific historical outcome.
(4) Historians are interested in evolution of human history and hence are only interested in long-term predictions.
(5) Historical sciences suffer from the inability to conduct controlled experiments and therefore have explanations based on a few long-term factors.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2). The answer lies in the 1st paragraph. Refer to lines 4-8, “To varying degrees…….prediction in history as in other historical science ……. small scale brief events become averaged out’. Option (1) is incorrect as it is too strong. Nowhere has it been mentioned that it is ‘impossible’ to make historical predictions. Option (3) is incorrect as the passage does not mention anywhere that historical sciences are not interested in minor factors. Option (4) is incorrect as nowhere in the passage is it stated that historians are ‘only’ interested in long-term predictions. Option (5) is incorrect as it addresses only ‘explanations’ and not ‘predictions’
71. According to the author, which of the following statements would be true?
(1) Students of history are missing significant opportunities by not conducting any natural experiments.
(2) Complex societies inhabiting large islands provide great opportunities for natural experiments.
(3) Students of history are missing significant opportunities by not studying an adequate variety of natural experiments.
(4) A unique problem faced by historians is their inability to establish cause and effect relationships.
(5) Cultural anthropologists have overcome the problem of confounding variables through natural experiments.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2). Refer to lines 2-5 of paragraph 3. Opportunities for natural experiments are provided by complex societies inhabiting large islands in considerable isolation. Options (1) and (3) are not true, as nowhere in the passage is it mentioned that the students are not taking the opportunities provided to them by way of conducting natural experiments. Option (4) is incorrect as we do not have enough information to assume that the problem the historians face is a unique one. Option (5) can be misleading. Though true, it is only an example of making use of the comparative methods and the natural experiments.
Directions for Questions 72 to 75: In each question, there are five sentences/paragraphs. The sentence/paragraph labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option.
72.
A. In America, highly educated women, who are in stronger position in the labour market than less qualified ones, have higher rates of marriage than other groups.
B. Some work supports the Becker thesis, and some appear to contradict it.
C. And, as with crime, it is equally inconclusive.
D. But regardless of the conclusion of any particular piece of work, it is hard to establish convincing connections between family changes and economic factors using conventional approaches.
E. Indeed, just as with crime, an enormous academic literature exists on the validity of the pure economic approach to the evolution of family structures.
(1) BCDE (2) DBEC (3) BDCE (4) ECBD (5) EBCD
SOLUTION:
The answer is (4). ECBD. D follows B, going by the common term ‘work’. Therefore options 1, 2 and 5 are eliminated. We know E and C are related because of the common term crime. The pronoun ‘it’ in sentence C refers to ‘an enormous academic literature’.
73.
A. Personal experience of mothering and motherhood are largely framed in relation to two discernible or “official” discourses: the “medical discourse and natural childbirth discourse”. Both of these tend to focus on the “optimistic stories” of birth and mothering and underpin stereotypes of the “good mother”.
B. At the same time, the need for medical expert guidance is also a feature for contemporary reproduction and motherhood. But constructions of good mothering have not always been so conceived - and in different contexts may exist in parallel to other equally dominant discourses.
C. Similarly, historical work has shown how what are now taken-for-granted aspects of reproduction and mothering practices result from contemporary “pseudoscientific directives” and “managed constructs”. These changes have led to a reframing of modern discourses that pattern pregnancy and motherhood leading to an acceptance of the need for greater expert management.
D. The contrasting, overlapping, and ambiguous strands within these frameworks focus to varying degrees on a woman’s biological tie to her child and predisposition to instinctively know and he able to care for her child.
E. In addition, a third, “unofficial popular discourse” comprising “old wives” tales and based on maternal experiences of childbirth has also been noted. These discourses have also been acknowledged in work exploring the experiences of those who apparently do not “conform” to conventional stereotypes of the “good mother”.
(I) EDBC (2) BCED (3) DBCE (4) EDCB (5) BCDE
SOLUTION:
The answer is (1), EDBC. Sentence E follows A as it gives a ‘third discourse’. ‘These frameworks’ in D refer to the three discourses mentioned earlier. Hence we get the link A-E-D. Up to the sequence A-E-D, the focus has been on ‘personal experience of mothering’ both official and in official. Statement B makes a point of the ‘need for medical expert guidance’ at the same time. Sentence C is an apt summary, as it integrates the ideas in A-E-D and B, stating the fact of ‘reframing of modern discourse’ and ‘acceptance of the need for greater expert management’. Hence the sequence A-E-D-B-C is the correct order of sentences in the paragraph.
74.
A. Indonesia has experienced dramatic shifts in its formal governance arrangements since the fall of President Soeharto and the close of his centralized, authoritarian “New Order” regime in 1997.
B. The political system has taken its place in the nearly 10 years since Reformasi began. It has featured the active contest for political office among a proliferation of parties at central, provincial and district levels; direct elections for the presidency (since 2004); and radical changes in centre- local government relations towards administrative, fiscal, and political decentralization.
C. The mass media, once tidily under Soeharto’s thumb, has experienced significant liberalization, as has the legal basis for non-governmental organizations, including many dedicated to such controversial issues as corruption control and human rights.
D. Such developments are seen optimistically by a number of donors and some external analysts, who interpret them as signs of Indonesia’s political normalization.
E. A different group of analysts paint a picture in which the institutional forms have changed, but power relations have not. Vedi Hadiz argues that Indonesia’s “democratic transition” has been anything but linear.
(1) BDEC (2) CBDE (3) CEBD (4) DEBC (5) BCDE
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (5). BCDE. B follows A because it speaks of the ‘nearly 10 years’ since 1997. C is talking about further changes since Soeharto’s fall even in the mass media. We know D and E are related because they both talk about analysts. However, E should end the paragraph since it talks of a different group of analysts; also, D talks about ‘such developments’, which further illustrates B and C, and should therefore follow them.
75.
A. I had six thousand acres of land, and had thus got much spare land besides the coffee plantation. Part of the farm was native forest, and about one thousand acres were squatters’ land, what Kikuyuj called their shambas.
B. The squatters’ land was more intensely alive than the rest of the farm, and was changing with the seasons the year round. The maize grew up higher than your head as you walked on the narrow hard-trampled footpaths in between the tall green rustling regiments.
C. The squatters are Natives, who with their families hold a few acres on a white man’s farm, and in return have to work for him a certain number of days in the year. My squatters, I think, saw the relationship in a different light, for many of them were born on the farm, and their fathers before them, and they very likely regarded me as a sort of superior squatter on their estates.
D. The Kikuyu also grew the sweet potatoes that have a vine like leaf and spread over the ground like a dense entangled mat, and many varieties of big yellow and green speckled pumpkins.
E. The beans ripened in the fields, were gathered and thrashed by the women, and the maize stalks and coffee pods were collected and burned, so that in certain seasons thin blue columns of smoke rose here and there all over the farm.
(1) CBDE (2) BCDE (3) CBED (4) DBCE (5) EDBC
SOLUTION:
The answer is (3). CBED. C elaborates upon who ‘the squatters’ are, so we know that it follows A. Option B talks about their land and shares the common word ‘squatters’, which suggests that the two statements are linked. Statement E mentions maize, which has been mentioned B as well, which means that it would follow B.
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